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Instructions:
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1- Read each question and their option carefully and choose the right answer.
2- Answer and rational are given below, must read them.
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Norcet test series 1
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Norcet test series 2
For this Nursing Test, we have covered important practice questions covering various Nursing topics! We have made a significant effort to provide you the most challenging questions with practical reasoning for each question to reinforce the learning.
A Glimpse of the Questions
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| AIIMS Norcet, ESIC Exams 2021 |
Que 1: Which laboratory finding is present in nephrotic syndrome
a) Hyperglycemia
b) Decreased hematocrit
c) Decreased total serum protein
d) Hhypercalcemia
Que 2: Dissemination of research can be done by following methods except
a) Poster presentation
b) Information discussion
c) Oral presentation
d) Publication in scientific journal
Que 3: An approach of literature review in which the researcher refers the studies with more limited distribution such as conference papers and unpublished reports is known as (AIIMS Raipur)
a) Bibliographic databases
b) Ancestry approach
c) Grey literature
d) Descendancy approach
Que 4: Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is
a) 4 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 3.5 cm
d) 3 cm
Que 5: An example of positive feedback mechanism in our body is
a) Oxytocin in childbirth
b) Baroreceptor mechanism
c) Regulation of thyroid hormone
d) Temperature regulation
Que 6: Blood drawn for complete blood count (CBC) is collected in
a) Plain vial
b) Citrate vial
c) EDTA vial
d) Chloride vial
Que 7: Which vaccine is most sensitive to heat
a) Pertussis vaccine
b) BCG vaccine
c) Typhoid vaccine
d) Polio vaccine
Que 8: Hallucinations are
a) Alteration of perception of one's reality
b) Misinterpretation of stimuli
c) Feeling of familiarity with unfamiliar things
d) Perception occurring without external stimulation
Que 9: A case of 35 weeks pregnancy with Polyhydroamnios and marked respiratory distress is managed by
a) Amniocentesis
b) ARM
c) IV furosemide
d) Saline infusion
Que 10: Which of the following indicates a nurse has to consider as an indicator of good nutrition
a) Albumin level 2.5 gram/DL
b) Total lymphocytes 1900/microlitre
c) Pre albumin level 18 milligram/DL
d) Transferrin level 244 milligram/DL
Que 11: Which of the following signs and symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
a) Abdominal pain
b) Lower back pain
c) Absent pedal pulses
d) Chest pain
Que 12: Which of the following antimicrobials should not be given to a chronic asthmatic patient managed on theophylline therapy
a) Cefotaxime
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Erythromycin
d) Amoxicillin
Que 13: When instilling ear drops on a 2 year old child, the nurse should pull the pinna in which directions
a) Down and back
b) Up and forward
c) Down and slightly forward
d) Up and back
Que 14: A 40 year old woman comes to OPD with abdominal tenderness and acute pain. On examination, the general physician observes that an abdominal infection has spread retroperitoneally. Which of the following structures is most likely affected
a) Descending colon
b) Jejunum
c) Stomach
d) Transverse colon
Que 15: Only topically used antifungal
a) Griseofulvin
b) Terbinafine
c) Clotrimazole
d) Fluconazole
Que 16: A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is used in the treatment of
a) Ascites
b) Hydrocephalus
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Pleural effusion
Que 17: Increased suicidal tendency is associated with
a) Low levels of serotonin
b) High levels of dopamine
c) High levels of serotonin
d) Low levels of dopamine
Que 18: Where should the physician place the stethoscope to listen to the sound of the mitral valve
a) Over the medial end of the second right intercostal space
b) In the left fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
c) In the left fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
d) Over the right half of the lower end of the body of the sternum
Que 19: Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid is active against the following organism except
a) Penicillinase producing N. gonorrhoeae
b) Methicillin resistant S. aureus
c) Penicillinase producing S. aureus
d) Beta-lactamase producing E. coli
Que 20: A newborn has delayed passage of meconium stools and barium enema radiograph shows dilated proximal colon and small obstructed distal colon. What should be the next diagnostic test
a) Stool studies
b) Rectal suction biopsies
c) Abdominal CT scan
d) Sweat chloride testing
Que 21: Sickle cell anaemia is
a) Allosomic heraditary disease
b) Epistatic effect
c) Autosomal hereditary disease
d) Nutritional disorder
Que 22: An adult client with tuberculosis asks the nurse if she needs to follow any special diet. Which suggestion would be most appropriate for the nurse to give
a) Eat a high carbohydrate diet
b) Eat frequent small, high calorie meals
c) Consume only high carbohydrate liquids
d) Eat a low calorie, low protein diet
Que 23: Before the administration of digoxin, the nurse completes an assessment to a toddler client for signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Which of the following is the earliest and most significant sign of digoxin toxicity
a) Tinnitus
b) Slowing in the heart rate
c) Nausea and vomiting
d) Vision problem
Que 24: Rivastigmine is given in
a) Anxiety
b) Parkinson’s Disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Schizophrenia
Que 25: The drug used in paracetamol (Acetaminophen) poisoning is
a) Acetyl salicylic acid
b) Flumazenil
c) Naloxone
d) N-Acetylcysteine
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