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Instructions:
To get the most out of this quiz, follow the instructions below:
1- Read each question and their option carefully and choose the right answer.
2- Answer and rational are given below, must read them.
3- If you need more clarification and any objection then please direct them in the comment box.
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Norcet test series 1
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Norcet test series 2
For this Nursing Test, we have covered important practice questions covering various Nursing topics! We have made a significant effort to provide you the most challenging questions with practical reasoning for each question to reinforce the learning.
A Glimpse of the Questions
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Mock test for staff nurse exam |
Que 1: Chronic diarrhoea is caused by
A. Corynebacterium
B. Intestinal parasistes
C. Candida albicans
D. Microbacterium tuberculi
Que 2: Head control of the infant occurs at the age of which month
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 6
Que 3: Sleeping sickness is caused by
A. Tsetse fly
B. Mosquito
C. House fly
D. Sandfly
Que 4: For screening of NCD, ANM should maintain history of
A. BMI
B. Physical activity
C. Blood sugar and blood pressure
D. All of the above
Que 5: Atropine is useful in organophosphate poisoning because it
A. Reactivates acetyl cholinesterase
B. Is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine
C. Competes with acetylcholine release
D. Binds with both nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholinereceptors
Que 6: Cytokines are chemical messengers, which
A. Promote inflammation
B. Cause severe pain
C. Kill microorganisms
D. Produce antibodies
Que 7: Which explanation by the nurse correctly describes the occurrence of identical twins
A. Two separate ova are fertilized by identical sperm
B. One fertilized ovum divides into two identical helves
C. Two identical ova are fertilized by two identical sperm
D. The mother releases two identical ova
Que 8: Nurse Leena plans to provide pre-operative teaching to a client who wil undergoing rhinoplasty. Which of the following should be included
A. After surgery, packing of the nose will be in place 8 to 10 days
B. Medicines containing aspirin should not be taken for 14 days before surgery
C. Results of surgery will be immediately noticeable postoperatively
D. Normal saline nasal drops will need to be administered pre-operatively
Que 9: A nurse is preparing a client of SDH to insert subclavian catheter ,which is most suitable position for this client to insert such catheter
A. Reverse trendelenberg
B. Supine
C. Trendelenberg
D. Fowler position
Que 10: Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effect of radiation in chemotherapy, when should a nurse administer antiemetic
A. Immediately after nausea begins
B. When therapy is completed
C. 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy
D. With the administration of therapy
Que 11: Immediate first aid treatment for dog bite is
A. Apply antiseptic lotion
B. Cover with dressing
C. Suture the big wound
D. Wash with soap and water for 15 minutes
Que 12: How should a nurse assess whether a patient with cirrhosis has asterixis
A. Dorsiflex the patient’s foot
B. Ask the client to extend the arms
C. Instruct the patient to lean forward
D. Measure the abdominal girth
Que 13: Which one of the following is the traditional philosophy of education
A. Spiritualism
B. Naturalism
C. Pragmatism
D. Idealism
Que 14: Type of consent in case of medical emergency, where doctors start emergency treatment to patients who cannot give informed consent, and for whom no immediate family can be reached to make such decisions
A. Absent
B. Process
C. Implied
D. Written informed
Que 15: After the baby is born the hormone prolactin is stimulated from which endocrine gland
A. Posterior pituitary
B. Adrenaline
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Thyroid
Que 16: Which among the following is an indicator of the prevalence of contraceptive practice in the community
A. Couple protection rate
B. Gross reproduction rate
C. General fertility rate
D. Small family norm
Que 17: A client develops a temperature of 102 degrees Fahrenheit (38.8 degrees Celsius), following open-heart surgery. The Nurse notifies physician as elevated temperature indicates
A. Cerebral edema
B. A forerunner of hemorrhage
C. An increase in the cardiac output
D. Possible diaphoresis and chilling
Que 18: Aorta pierces the diaphragm at the level of
A. T8
B. C6
C. T12
D. T10
Que 19: The nurse observes the patient to be withdrawn and crying and conveys to the patient that she seems to be sad today. The interviewing approach used here is
A. Examining
B. Reflecting
C. Clarifying
D. Orienting
Que 20: While preparing a pregnant woman for amniocentesis, the nurse should
A. Prepare her for IV anesthesia
B. Instruct her to void
C. Place her in left lateral position
D. Instruct her to drink 1L of water
Que 21: Vitamin a prophylaxis a child is
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Primordial prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
Que 22: The stages of death and dying include
A. Powerlessness
B. Ethical dilemma
C. Bargaining
D. Role strain
Que 23: If wound eviscerations occurs, the immediate nursing action is
A. Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze
B. Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze
C. Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together
D. Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile NS
Que 24: When a person’s blood pressure drops, the kidneys respond by
A. Increasing urine output
B. Secreting renin
C. Slowing the release of ADH
D. Producing aldosterone
Que 25: The classical substances that increase the sensitivity of pain receptors by enhancing the pain-provoking effect of bradykinin are
A. Encephalin
B. Nociceptor
C. Prostaglandins
D. Endorphins
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