Candidates who are willing to appear in the UP NHM CHO Exam 2022, check National Health Mission, uttar pradesh solved papers here.
Here, we are provided the NHM UP previous papers with answers. So, applicants can read the NHM UP exam solved papers and start preparation well and score the marks. Candidates who have a dream to get job in UP NRHM as CHO, check the topic wise solved papers given below.
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| UP NHM- CHO |
Section : Midwifery and Obstetrical Nursing
Q.1 ______ lanuginosa is a rare inherited disorder in which lanugo hairs persist or are overproduced throughout life.
A. Hypertrichosis
B. Trypanosoma
C. Borrelia
D. Haemophilus
Q.2 The ______ is formed by the hip bones in front and at the sides and by the sacrum and the coccyx behind.
A. phalanx
B. femur
C. fibula
D. bone pelvis
Q.3 What is the sperm and the unfertilised oocytes transferred into the fallopian tube called?
A. Intrauterine insemination
B. In vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer (IVF-ET)
C. Zygote intra-fallopian transfer
D. Gamete intra-fallopian transfer
Q.4 If vomiting is severe, causing a woman to lose fluids and weight, it may indicate a condition called:
A. polycystic ovary syndrome
B. urinary tract infection
C. hyperemesis gravidarum
D. autoimmune disorder
Q.5 On day one the ovum fertilises to form a:
A. yolk sac
B. zygote
C. blastocyst
D. embryo
Q.6 Which of the following is a role of a nurse in midwifery?
A. To operate on a pregnant mother
B. To promote normal birth
C. To be involved in health counselling of pregnant woman only
D. To conduct deliveries responsibly, like a doctor
Q.7 Which of the following is NOT an indicator of fertility?
A. Changes in the cervix
B. Dryness of cervical mucus
C. Calculation of cycle length
D. The waking temperature
Q.8 The female hormonal or reproductive cycle is an example of real biological ----------- system.
A. oscillating
B. fixed
C. diverse
D. reverse
Section : Community Health Nursing
Q.1 Which of the following is one of the guiding principles of a community health nurse?
A. Function as a team
B. Records and reports are not important
C. As part of culture, a health worker should accept gifts
D. Health services should be the felt need of the nurse
Q.2 A ______ is the planner, promotor, organiser, supervisor, coordinator, and evaluator of all functions in PHC.
A. community health worker
B. medical officer
C. male health worker
D. female health worker
Q.3 The ______ dimension of health is a notion of the perfect functioning of the body.
A. physical
B. social
C. spiritual
D. mental
Q.4 ______ includes both physical and nutritional assessment.
A. Health assessment
B. Social assessment
C. Community data
D. Non-physical assessment
Q.5 Community health postulates a unified and balanced integration of curative,______ and promotive health service.
A. communicative
B. preventive
C. protective
D. emotive
Q.6 ______ is a clinical judgement about individual, family, or community responses to actual or potential health problems or life processes.
A. Implementation
B. Nursing process
C. Nursing diagnosis
D. Community health nursing process
Q.7 _____ is a specialised agency to deal with welfare and rehabilitation of children.
A. United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund
B. United Nations Development Program
C. Food and Agriculture Organization
D. Red Cross Society
Q.8 Which of the principles of Primary Health Care is defined by the following statement? ‘Primary health care implies providing health care services to all who require them’.
A. Coverage and accessibility
B. Equitable distribution
C. Community participation
D. Referral system
Section : Child Health Nursing
Q.1 On 20 November 1959, the General Assembly of the United Nations made a declaration of the Rights of the Child. Which of the following does NOT belong to the above declaration?
A. Right to develop in an atmosphere of affection and security
B. Right to free education
C. Right to special care
D. Right to be a universal citizen
Q.2 There are four phases of human sexual response. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Excitement
B. Tension
C. Plateau
D. Resolution
Q.3 The placenta (after birth) is a temporary organ for foetal ______ , nutrition and excretion.
A. respiration
B. heartbeat
C. brain function
D. growth
Q.4 There are _______ foetal circulatory shunts.
A. four
B. three
C. five
D. six
Q.5 Who is known as the Father of Obstetrics?
A. Antonius Musa
B. Asclepiades of Bithynia
C. Soranus of Ephesus
D. Aulus Cornelius Celsus
Q.6 On the ninth day after fertilisation a cavity called the _______ forms in the blastocyst.
A. chorion
B. germ layer
C. amnion
D. yolk sac
Q.7 ______ are developed as a result of the nursing process.
A. Nursing morals
B. Nursing instincts
C. Nursing ethics
D. Nursing plans
Q.8 ________ is the study of the functions of all the genes in the human body, with a focus on their interactions with each other and the environment.
A. Genomics
B. Cardiology
C. Odontology
D. Ophthalmology
Section : Medical Surgical Nursing
Q.1 ______ is a term that encapsulates all the steps involved in administering a drug.
A. People skills
B. Medicine management
C. Time management
D. Stock management
Q.2 If a patient's pain is poorly controlled, which of the following complications may occur?
A. Decreased oxygen demand
B. Emotional and physical suffering
C. Hyper mobility due to panic
D. Deep sleep
Q.3 _______ is an accumulation of pus that forms within a tissue when the body tries to fight an infection.
A. Anastomosis
B. Abscess
C. Adhesion
D. Tumour
Q.4 Psychological support is required throughout the peri-operative period, in order to ensure that the patient:
A. knows whom to contact if they have a query after discharge from hospital
B. does not focus on the process involved in the pre-operative assessment and preparation
C. has family members in order to discuss any concerns or anxieties
D. does not express any fear and anxieties
Q.5 The most common nursing problem expressed by patients undergoing surgical procedures during the preoperative phase is_________
A. Anxiety related to surgical experience
B. Knowledge deficit
C. Sensory impairment
D. Fear of unknown
Q.6 Which of the following situation would necessitate the nurse washing his or her hands for at least 20 seconds with antimicrobial soap?
A. Before preparing medications for a patient
B. After cleaning an open wound
C. After coughing into his or her hands
D. After taking a patient’s blood pressure
Q.7 The small intestine is the main site of digestion and consists of three parts. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. The ascending colon
B. The duodenum
C. The jejunum
D. The ileum
Q.8 A ruptured aortic aneurysm that requires repair would need:
A. expedited surgery
B. immediate surgery
C. Traditional surgery
D. elective surgery
Section : Health Education and Communication Skills & Environmental Hygiene
Q.1 Food can be classified based on four criteria. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
A. Physiological functions
B. Chemical composition
C. Source of origin of food
D. Nutritive value
Q.2 Principle of interpersonal relationship include
A. Guiding
B. Impartial
C. Counseling
D. Motivation
Q.3 Which of the following approaches will allow lessening the patient's anxiety created by intrusions and the loss of space?
A. Create an environment of socialisation around the patient
B. Treat the patient respectfully
C. Be physically at an intimate distance with the patient
D. Control the patient's environment
Q.4 All of the following are the components of personal hygiene EXCEPT:
A. Skin and Oral hygiene
B. Mental Hygiene
C. Menstrual hygiene
D. Hand washing
Q.5 Which of the following is a function of nonverbal communication?
A. Do not regulate the flow of communication
B. Convey information about one's emotional status
C. Communicate intentions of health care professionals
D. Complicate the verbal message
Q.6 ______ uses physical cleaning and heat to disinfect contaminated re-usable items.
A. Chemical disinfection
B. Decontamination by manual cleaning
C. Low-temperature steam disinfection
D. Disinfection with washers
Q.7 _______ serves as a vehicle for Vitamin A, D, E and K.
A. Minerals
B. Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Protein
Q.8 Which of the following illnesses is by droplet infection and it is community acquired ?
A. Typhoid
B. Cholera
C. Tuberculosis
D. Diarrhoea
Section : Mental Health Nursing
Q.1 Mental health nurses have to be able to maintain ______ boundaries while simultaneously developing close therapeutic relationships with clients based on empathy and positive connectedness.
A. social
B. professional
C. personal
D. natural
Q.2 The phase involves the comparison of the narrative with the nurse's beliefs, biases, and knowledge.
A. descriptive
B. emancipatory
C. reflective
D. critical
Q.3 ______ a Swiss psychiatrist, coined the term 'schizophrenia' and replaced the old term 'dementia praecox'.
A. Harry Stack Sullivan
B. Sigmund Freud
C. Carl Jung
D. Eugen Bleuler
Q.4 In which year did the standard of psychiatric mental health nursing practice come into practice and the American Nurses Association certified psychiatric mental health nurse generalists?
A. 1965
B. 1975
C. 1973
D. 1964
Q.5 ____________ disorders are due to the influence of drug intoxication or the effect of hallucination drugs.
A. Perceptual body image
B. Sensory perception
C. Time and span perceptual
D. Possession
Q.6 According to Marie Jahoda:
A. the absence of mental illness is not a sufficient indicator of mental health
B. hospitalisation is required for the treatment of mental illness
C. the support of the community to mental health patients is a sufficient indicator of mental health
D. the absence of mental illness is a sufficient indicator of mental health
Q.7 ________ is a publication of the World Health Organization (WHO, 1992) and the most widely used classification for mental illness.
A. ICD-10-CM
B. F80-F89
C. F90-F98
D. F70-F79
Q.8 __________ relationships are the central activity of mental health nursing.
A. Therapeutic
B. Physiological
C. Individual
D. Spiritual
Section : Nutrition
Q.1 Which of the following can be classified as one of the nutrition problems in India?
A. Communicable disease
B. Protein energy malnutrition
C. Macronutrient excess
D. Seasonal disease
Q.2 Which of the following is NOT caused due to the deficiency of protein in the human body?
A. Malfunction of various organs due to hormone increment
B. Retarded growth
C. Susceptibility to disease due to lack of anti-bodies
D. Worn out cells not replaced
Q.3 Which of the following is a micronutrient ?
A. Water
B. Lipids
C. Minerals
D. Proteins
Q.4 ______ is commonly referred to as blood glucose or blood sugar.
A. D-glucose
B. Lactose
C. Sucrose
D. Galactose
Q.5 Which of the following is a part of dietary guidelines for a normal healthy adult ?
A. Take protein diet only
B. Increase the amount of fat in the diet
C. Eat one variety of food
D. Choose a diet moderate in sugar
Q.6 _____ is a term referring to the noncarbohydrate aromatic polymers of the plant cell wall.
A. Lignin
B. Hemicellulose
C. Cellulose
D. Pectin
Q.7 Who said, ‘Let food be thy medicine and medicine be thy food’?
A. Leonardo Da Vinci
B. Hippocrates
C. Antoine Lavoisier
D. Dr James Lind
Q.8 Food rich in _______ and fats are called energy-yielding foods.
A. minerals
B. carbohydrates
C. proteins
D. vitamins
Section : First Aid
Q.1 Which of the following is a feature of arterial haemorrhage?
A. Cannot be stopped by compression of the artery between the heart and the site of injury
B. Flows continuously without any spurts
C. Colour of the blood change to Bluish red
D. Bright red in colour
Q.2 In case of head injury, what should be done?
A. Palpate clavicles and shoulders
B. Check pupils
C. Palpate for rigidity and tenderness
D. Observe and palpate for areas of tenderness and deformity
Q.3 ______ is a strong emotional upset that may be due to fear, pain, good or bad news.
A. Nervous shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock
Q.4 Which of the following is an aim of first aid?
A. To cure
B. To prevent individuals from injury
C. To save life
D. To operate on patients at the injury site
Q.5 Which of the following is NOT an equipment that is present in a first aid kit?
A. Tweezer
B. Scissors
C. Reusable gloves
D. Thermometer
Q.6 A patient who is unconscious but breathing and has heartbeat should be nursed in ______________ position.
A. dorsal recumbent position
B. Fowler's
C. prone
D. recovery
Q.7 Which of the following is a sign of cardiac arrest?
A. The person will look like choking
B. The patient will be unconscious
C. The skin colour will turn to red
D. The respiration will be faster
Q.8 A patient may have ______ due to peptic ulcers, acute gastritis or cancer of the stomach.
A. haematuria
B. haematemesis
C. haemoptysis
D. epistaxis
Section : Basic Anatomy and Physiology
Q.1 The occupies the central portion of the cell and is the main regulator of its activity.
A. pinocytic vesicle
B. nucleus
C. nuclear membrane
D. cytoplasm
Q.2 ____________ refers to the diffusion of a solvent through a semipermeable membrane, or one that is impermeable to certain solutes.
A. Dialysis
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Passive diffusion
D. Osmosis
Q.3 _______ is a connective tissue in which the intercellular substance is made hard by salts of calcium and phosphate.
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscle
C. Bone
D. Cartilage
Q.4 The neurons composing the nervous system can be divided into _____ classes.
A. three
B. four
C. six
D. five
Q.5 ______ is one layer of flat cells found lining the alveoli of the lungs, lens of the eye, and part of the inner ear
A. Stratified squamous
B. Columnar
C. Simple squamous
D. Endothelial
Q.6 The system comprises the heart, blood, and blood and lymph vessels.
A. circulatory
B. skeletal
C. cartilage
D. muscular
Q.7 The spinal cord is divided into two divisions which includes the spinal grey matter and:
A. spinal white matter
B. spinal black matter
C. spinal red matter
D. spinal blue matter
A. Q.8 The spinal cord lies within the vertebral canal of the vertebrae. In man, it is about ___________ cm long and extends from the medulla to the second lumbar vertebra.
B. 45
C. 42
D. 33
E. 38
Section : Administration and Ward Management
Q.1 The of the hospital manages its affairs and keeps the organisation running smooth.
A. Director of medicine
B. Director of Nursing
C. Director of Path Lab
D. Director
Q.2 Which of the following is a major function of physical therapy?
A. To delay the patient's desire to be out of hospital
B. To allow the patient to be in the hospital till recovery
C. To care for the patient so that the patient is dependent
D. To restore body function
Q.3 A hospital with less than ________ beds is generally planned as a horizontal structure.
A. 200
B. 100
C. 300
D. 400
Q.4 In _______ a separate specialty department is created with all specialised facilities and it is called the ER department.
A. Emergency services
B. basic emergency services
C. super specialty emergency services
D. major emergency services
Q.5 What is the need for ward management?
A. Promoting happiness
B. Promoting birth control
C. Curing diseases
D. Caring for the sick and the injured
Q.6 What is the responsibility of the head nurse in relation to supplies and equipment?
A. To keep less than adequate supplies to avoid wastage
B. To manage the supplies and equipment by herself
C. To provide supplies and equipment as per the demand of doctors
D. To be observant of waste and misuse
Q.7 The size of undressing cubicles should be ____ ft2
A. 23
B. 30
C. 15
D. 26
Q.8 How many types of emergency services are there?
A. Two
B. Five
C. Three
D. Four
Section : General Aptitude and Reasoning General Awareness and Basic Computer Knowledge
Q.1 ‘A * B’ means 'A is the father of B' ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ ‘A & B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ If A & B * Q & P * R, then how is A related to P?
A. Father
B. Aunt
C. Mother-in-law
D. Mother
Q.2 Which of the following pollutants are NOT involved in photochemical smog?
A. Nitrogen dioxide
B. Peroxyl acetyl nitrate
C. Peroxyacyl nitrate
D. Ozone
Q.3 __________ are used by hardware devices to indicate an event which requires attention of the operating system.
A. Interrupts
B. Messages
C. Alarms
D. Beeps
Q.4 ‘A % B’ means 'A is the sister of B' ‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the Father of B’ ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
‘A & B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’ ‘A * B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’ If B $ A @ C % D & E * F % G, then how is F related to A?
A. Daughter
B. Niece
C. Granddaughter
D. Grandson
Q.5 One Petabyte = _____ Gigabyte.
A. 64
B. 1024 × 1024
C. 1024 × 1024 × 1024
D. 1024
Q.6 Which of the following is the International Clinical Trials launched by the World Health Organization (WHO) and its partners to learn an effective treatment for COVID-19?
A. Dissidence
B. Solidarity
C. Dissension
D. Separation
Q.7 A hermit travelled a distance of 153 km in 12 hours. He travelled partly on camel cart at 9 km/h and partly by bus at 18 km/h. What is the distance travelled on camel cart?
A. 63 km
B. 85 km
C. 74 km
D. 52 km
Q.8 Income certificate and community certificate can be obtained through the government’s ___ application.
A. e-Grantz
B. e-Health
C. e-District
D. e-Registry
Q.9 Which of the following space agencies is planning to launch the first disabled astronaut in space?
A. CNSA
B. NASA
C. ESA
D. ISRO
Q.10 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.
A. MPON
B. DGEF
C. PSRQ
D. EHGF
Q.11 There are 60 workers in a company. Their average weight is 60 kg. When 3 workers leave the company, the average weight is reduced by 200 g. What is average weight of the workers who left the company?
A. 63.8 kg
B. 64.2 kg
C. 61.5 kg
D. 62.7 kg
Q.12 When steel is heated to redness and then suddenly cooled by plunging into water or oil, it becomes:
A. hard and ductile
B. hard and brittle
C. soft and ductile
D. soft and brittle
Q.13 The ratio of the speed of two cars is 7 : 8. If the first car runs 455 km in 5 hours, then how much distance will the second car run in 6 hours?
A. 756 km
B. 628 km
C. 544 km
D. 624 km
Q.14 Who among the following is the founder and current CEO of the electric car manufacturing company ‘Tesla’?
A. Bill Gates
B. Larry Page
C. Elon Musk
D. Jeff Bezos
Q.15 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
98, 34, 96, 36 ,94, 39, ?
A. 90
B. 44
C. 92
D. 45
Q.16 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the one that is different.
A. TWY
B. BEG
C. LOQ
D. FHJ
Q.17 There was an ODI cricket match between Teams C1 and C2. Team C1 won the toss and decided to bat first. In the first 15 overs, team C1 scored only 42 runs. What should be the run rate in the remaining 35 overs to reach the target of 320 runs?
A. 8.28
B. 6.50
C. 8.14
D. 7.94
Q.18 Seventeen boys go to a hill station for dinner. Sixteen of them spend ₹550 each for their dinner and seventeenth boy spends ₹224 more than the average expenditure of all seventeen boys. If the guide of these boys also joins the dinner and spends ₹654, then what will be the average expenditure of all the seventeen boys and the guide?
A. ₹545
B. ₹553
C. ₹569
D. ₹577
Q.19 ______ is an operating system designed to be used in touchscreen kiosks and similar connected devices.
A. Firefox
B. Firebase
C. FireCast
D. FireWire
Q.20 The statutory authority for assigning Aadhaar numbers to residents of India is ___.
A. the Income Tax Department
B. the Ministry of Electronics and IT
C. the Election Commission
D. the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
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