Mock Test For Staff Nurse/Nursing Officer Exams #148

Mock Test For Staff Nurse/Nursing Officer Exams

Hello friends, for everyone, here we provide for free competitive questions everyday. And today in this series again free questions and answers series for AIIMS Norcet 2022 exam #148 is available for you. Which is useful for nurses to participate in any nursing staff recruitment exam. Click below for today's online test.

Instructions:

To get the most out of this quiz, follow the instructions below:

1- Read each question and their option carefully and choose the right answer.

2- Answer and rational are given below, must read them.

3- If you need more clarification and any objection then please direct them in the comment box.

Que 1: Hamilton Russel traction is used for

A) Femoral fractures

B) Inter trochanteric fractures

C) Fracture shaft of femur

D) Fractures of the lower extremities

Correct Answer: Inter trochanteric fractures

Rational: Hamilton-Russell traction used for conservative management of inter trochanteric fractures.

It produces a counter traction with the patient’s body weight by elevating the foot of the bed.

Gallows traction is used in treatment of fracture shaft of femur

Buck’s traction is widely used in the lower limb for femoral fractures, lower backache, acetabular and hip fractures.

Que 2: Mechanism of action of aspirin is

A) Inhibits COX 1 preferentially

B) Inhibits COX 2 preferentially

C) Inhibits COX 1 and COX 2 reversibly

D) Inhibits COX 1 and COX 2 irreversibly

Correct Answer: Inhibits COX 1 and COX 2 irreversibly

Rational: Aspirin is an acetylsalicylic acid.

It rapidly converted to salicylic acid in the body.

Acetylation of certain macromolecules including cyclooxygenase (COX), Aspirin/salicylates leads to irreversible inactivation of COX 1 and COX 2, thus inhibiting synthesis of thromboxane and prostaglandins.

Que 3: Osmotic pressure and acid base balance of body fluids are maintained by

A) Fluorine

B) Magnesium

C) Sodium

D) Zinc

Correct Answer: Sodium

Rational: Sodium plays a vital role in controlling osmotic pressure, the pressure that develops between the blood and cells due to ionic concentration differences. The total volume of extracellular fluid is determined by its sodium level.

Que 4: Lipoatrophy is a complication that occurs when insulin is injected repeatedly in one site. What is the physiologic effect that occurs

A) Depression under the skin surface

B) Rash at a raised area on the skin surface

C) Bruising under the skin

D) Raised lumps or knot on the skin surface

Correct Answer: Depression under the skin surface

Rational: Lipoatrophy is the breakdown of adipose tissue at the insulin injection site causing a depression in the skin at the injection site and occasionally at distant sites also.

Que 5: Lactating mother should use contraceptive in

A) 3rd postpartum week

B) 6th postpartum month

C) 3rd postpartum month

D) 4th postpartum month

Correct Answer: 3rd postpartum month

Rational: Lactating women should start using contraceptives in the 3rd postpartum month.

In lactating mother ovulation occurs after 10 weeks.

Que 6: The most important dependence producing opoid derivates are 

A) Codeine and Papaverine

B) Pethidine and Nolaptrine

C) Heroine and Methadone

D) Morphine and Heroine

Correct Answer: Morphine and Heroine

Mock test for norcet 2022

Que 7: The signs of pulmonary embolism are except

A) Rise in blood pressure

B) Cyanosis

C) Dyspnoea

D) Tachycardia

Correct Answer: Rise in blood pressure

Que 8: The apgar score of a neonate at one minute after birth is 6. The nurse should prepare to perform which nursing intervention:

A) Give the infant its first bath

B) Administer oxygen to the infant

C) Begin resuscitation measures

D) Place the infant on the mother's chest to promote bonding

Correct Answer: Administer oxygen to the infant

Que 9: A patient diagnosed with ulcerative colitis is admitted to the medical unit. When assessing the patient, which of these findings would be of the most concern

A) Rebound tenderness

B) Borborygmi

C) Oral temperature of 99.0F (37.2° C)

D) Bloody diarrhea

Correct Answer: Rebound tenderness

Que 10: Daily calcium requirement of a lactating mother

A) 700 mg

B) 500 mg

C) 1000 mg

D) 1200 mg

Correct Answer: 1200 mg

Norcet test series 2022

Que 11: While measuring blood pressure in upper arm the chest piece of stethoscope is placed over which of the following arteries

A) Axillary

B) Ulnar

C) Brachial

D) Radial

Correct Answer: Brachial

Que 12: Placepta directly anchored to myometrium is

A) Circumvallate placenta

B) Placenta accreta

C) Retained placenta

D) Bipartite placenta

Correct Answer: Placenta accrete

Que 13: Descend of testis occur

A) Before birth

B) 16 weeks

C) After 7 month

D) 24 weeks

Correct Answer: Before birth

Que 14: Which of the following organ first develop in embryo

A) Kidney

B) Gonads

C) Lungs

D) Heart

Correct Answer: Heart

Que 15: What does “P” stand for, in APGAR score of newborn is

A) P-Pale

B) P-Pain

C) P-Pulse

D) P-Position

Correct Answer: P - Pulse

Rational: P in APGAR score stands for Pulse. If the pulse rate is absent, 0 score is assigned on the scale while if it is below 100 bpm it is scored 1. A pulse rate of 100 or above is scored as 2.

Norcet 2022 mock test

Que 16: Hypoactive delirium is associated with

A) Drug intoxication

B) Hepatic encephalopathy

C) Anticholinergics

D) Drug withdrawal

Correct Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy

Rational: Hypoactive delirium is commonly associated with hepatic and renal encephalopathies.

Que 17: Female Health Worker covers a population of

A) 100 population

B) 30000 population

C) 1000 population

D) 5000 population

Correct Answer: 5000 population

Que 18: Drug of choice for Crohn’s disease

A) Steroids

B) Azathioprine

C) Infliximab

D) Tacrolimus

Correct Answer: Infliximab

Rational: Anti TNF monoclonal antibodies like infliximab, Golimumab, Certolizumab and adalimumab are drug of choice for an acute attack of moderate to severe CD.

Que 19: A patient who has been taking an oral antihypertensive drug for about a year develops a positive Coombs’ test. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause

A) Captopril

B) Methyldopa

C) Labetalol

D) Clonidine

Correct Answer: Methyldopa

Rational: If patients taking methyldopa drug as long term it may progress to hemolytic anemia. The cause is formation of a hapten on erythrocyte membranes, which induces an immune reaction (IgG antibodies) directed against and potentially lysing the red cell membrane.

Que 20: A child got his vaccination done. He has acquired

A) Artificial active immunity

B) Herd immunity

C) Artificial passive immunity

D) Natural passive immunity 

Correct Answer: Artificial active immunity

Rational: Artificial active immunity is acquired by vaccination (i.e. the injection of vaccine containing active antigens to prevent the development of the disease in the future).

Mock test for Nursing competitive exams

Que 21: The main purpose of reviewing research evidence in the establishment of evidence based guidelines is to

A) Develop guidelines for providing care to clients

B) Generate new nursing research projects

C) Critique the usefulness of the research in expanding knowledge

D) Review research methods for appropriateness within a research report

Correct Answer: Develop guidelines for providing care to clients

Rational: The main purpose of leveling research evidence in the establishment of evidence-based practice guidelines is to develop standard guidelines for providing care to clients that are based on the strongest evidence known, to improve the quality of care.

Que 22: How many seconds should it take for one cycle of CPR

A) 15 seconds

B) 45 seconds

C) 24 seconds

D) 30 seconds

Correct Answer: 24 seconds

Rational: In CPR 5 cycles of CPR should be performed in 2 minutes. Each cycle includes 30 chest compression 2 ventilation. So one cycle in 24 seconds.

Que 23: Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse for a patient admitted in emergency room with acute asthmatic attack

A) Norelief from inhalant

B) Diffuse expiratory wheezing

C) Loose, productive cough

D) Fever and chills

Correct Answer: Diffuse expiratory wheezing

Rational: Asthmatic attack, also called an asthma exacerbation, in this condition the airways become swollen and inflamed. The muscles around the airways contract and the airways produce extra mucus, causing the bronchial tubes to narrow.

During an attack, may cough, wheeze and have trouble breathing.

Que 24: The nurse has received an order to administer Injection clexane 60mg/0.6mL to her assigned patient. Which route and site, the nurse would prefer to administer this drug

A) Subcutaneous route, at inner aspect of the forearm

B) Subcutaneous route, at 2 fingers width away from umbilicus

C) Intramuscular route, at deltoid

D) Intramuscular route, at lateral aspect of thigh

Correct Answer: Subcutaneous route, at 2 fingers width away from umbilicus

Rational: Common sites for administering the subcutaneous injections:

- 2 finger width away from umbilicus

- Outer aspect of the upper arm

- Anterior thigh

- Under the scapula

Que 25: A patient is posted for colonoscopy. The nurse is preparing the patient, is aware about the type of anesthesia commonly used for colonoscopy procedure is

A) Conscious sedation

B) Regional anesthesia

C) Nerve block

D) Epidural anesthesia

Correct Answer: Conscious sedation

Rational: Moderate sedation / analgesia is also known as conscious sedation or procedural sedation and is used for short term and minimally invasive procedures such as a colonoscopy.

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