Mock Test For AIIMS Norcet Exam
Hello friends, for everyone, here we provide for free competitive questions everyday. And today in this series again free questions and answers series for AIIMS Norcet 2022 exam #161 is available for you. Which is useful for nurses to participate in any nursing staff recruitment exam. Click below for today's online test. For Pdf file Scroll Downward.
Instructions:
To get the most out of this quiz, follow the instructions below:
1- Read each question and their option carefully and choose the right answer.
2- Answer and rational are given below, must read them.
3- If you need more clarification and any objection then please direct them in the comment box.
PART- I
PART- II
Que 1: Mr. Mohan developed quadriplegia following a diving accident. The most likely cause is
A. C4 injury
B. T3 injury
C. L3 injury
D. T6 injury
Correct answer: C4 injury
Que 2: The right sequence of formation of urine is
A. Secretion, reabsorption, filtration
B. Reabsorption, secretion, filtration
C. Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
D. Secretion, filtration, reabsorption
Correct answer: Filtration, reabsorption, secretion
Que3: For active management of third stage of labour the nurse should administer
A:-Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute
B:-Oxytocin 10 units within 5 minutes
C:-Oxytocin 5 units within 1 minute
D:-Oxytocin 5 units within 5 minutes
Correct Answer:- Oxytocin 10 units within 1 minute
Que 4: As a nurse what will be your first action if a mother complaints of increased body temperature for her new born baby of 2 days old. Body temperature by axilla is 100.6°F
A:-Assess the feeding pattern
B:-Do tepid sponging
C:-Administer paracetamol drops
D:-Inform the doctor
Correct Answer:- Assess the feeding pattern
Que 5: Which among the following is NOT a sign of impending eclampsia
A:-Persistent frontal head ache
B:-Diminished urine output
C:-Raised body temperature
D:-Epigastric pain
Correct Answer:- Raised body temperature
Que 6: The stain using to visnalise separated DNA by gel electrophoresis is
A:-Ethidium bromide
B:-Haematoxylin
C:-Acetocarmin
D:-Feulgen dye
Correct Answer:- Ethidium bromide
Que 7: Contraindications for using oral contraceptives
A:-Thrombophlebitis
B:-Urinary tract infections
C:-Ulcerative colitis
D:-Menorrhagia
Correct Answer:- Thrombophlebitis
Que 8: The instruments devised for measuring the cooling power of the air is
A:-Kata thermometer
B:-Wet globe thermometer
C:-Silvered thermometer
D:-Globe thermometer
Correct Answer:- Kata thermometer
Free Test Series For AIIMS Norcet Exam
Que 9: The process of enabling people to increase control over and to improve health is known as
A:-Specific protection
B:-Early diagnosis and treatment
C:-Health promotion
D:-Disability limitation
Correct Answer:- Health promotion
Que 10: All of the following are known predisposing factors for Alzheimer’s disease except
A. Down syndrome
B. Female sex
C. Low education level
D. Smoking
Correct Answer:- Smoking
Que 11: Which one among these is a cyanotic heart disease?
A. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Atrial septal defect
Correct answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Solution : Cyanosis refers to a bluish color of the skin and mucous membranes. Example of cyanotic heart defect: Tetralogy of Fallot, Tricuspid atresia.
An acyanotic heart defect, also known as non-cyanotic heart defect, is a class of congenital heart defects. In these, blood is flows from the left side of the heart to the right side of the heart due to a structural defect (hole) in the interventricular septum. Examples are: Ventricular septal defect, Patent Ductus Arteriosus, Atrial septal defect
Mock Test For Staff Nurse Exam
Que 12: Carbamazepine in elderly causes:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: Hyponatremia
Solution : Dilutional hyponatremia due to Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion is seen particularly in elderly patients on carbamazepine.
Oxcarbazepine causes lesser side effects than carbamazepine, except hyponatremia, which is more common and severe with Oxcarbazepine.
Que 13: Suppositories are given by which route?
A. Sublingual
B. Ocular
C. Oral
D. Rectal
Correct answer: Rectal
Que 14: Blood urea level is markedly increased in:
A. Liver disease
B. Renal disease
C. Cardiac disease
D. Protein intake
Correct answer: Renal disease
Solution: Urea is the end product of protein metabolism. Its normal concentration in blood is 20 to 40 mg/100 mL.
Blood urea concentration may be low in late pregnancy, in starvation and in a diet grossly deficient in proteins.
Increase in blood urea may occur in various conditions, as pre-renal, renal and post-renal.
Que 15: Recommended protein during pregnancy is:
A. 60 g
B. 75 g
C. 14 g
D. 32 g
Correct answer: 75 g
Que 16: Witche’s milk is secreted by :
(A) Mother
(B) New born
(C) Both
(D) None
Correct Answer: New born
Que 17: Retinacula are thickened portions of :
(A) Superficial fascia
(B) Deep fascia
(C) Tendons
(D) Muscles
Correct Answer: Deep fascia
ESIC Nursing Officer Previous Question Papers PDF
Que 18: For a morbidly obese patient, which intervention should the nurse choose to counteract the pressure created by the skin folds?
A. Cover the mattress with a sheepskin
B. Keep the linens wrinkle free
C. Separate the skin folds with towels
D. Apply petrolatum barrier creams
Correct answer: Keep the linens wrinkle free
Que 19: Which type of dressing is used when there are loose, necrotic tissues seen in the wound?
A. Wet to dry
B. Wet to Wet
C. Dry to dry
D. Dry to wet
Correct answer: Dry to dry
Solution: Dry to dry dressing is used in case of the loose, necrotic tissue. It absorbs exudates, necrotic tissues, and foreign material. This is useful as the debris adheres to dry sterile gauze easily and can be removed easily by changing the bandage.
Que 20: The dose of misoprostol in emergent management of PPH:
A. 200 mcg
B. 800 mcg
C. 400 mcg
D. 600 mcg
Correct answer: 800 mcg
Solution: Dose of Misoprostol for preventing PPH (i.e. for active management of third stage of labor) = 600 mcg orally.
Dose of Misoprostol for treating PPH = 800 mcg sublingually.
Que 21: Which of the following clinical presentation would a nurse expect while assessing a patient with abruptio placenta?
A. Rigid, board-like abdomen
B. Premature rupture of membranes
C. Edema in legs
D. Excessive vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: Excessive vaginal bleeding
Solution: Placental abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterine lining. This condition usually occurs in the third trimester.
It can be observed any time after the 20th week of pregnancy.
Excessive vaginal bleeding is a significant sign which a nurse will observe in abruption placenta.
Que 22: Which of the following reflects as the dimension of the holistic approach?
A. Physical, Mental, Emotional, Spiritual and Social
B. Social, Cultural, Emotional, Spiritual and Mental
C. Physical, vocational, Spiritual, Cultural and Emotional
D. Social, Spiritual, Emotional and Religious
Correct answer: Physical, Mental, Emotional, Spiritual and Social
Que 23: In an accident, a person lost his right arm. Identify which type of loss is the person suffering from?
A. Actual loss
B. Maturational loss
C. Anticipatory loss
D. Perceived loss
Correct answer: Actual loss
Que 24: Which clinical feature is not associated with psychosis in the comparison of neurosis?
A. Psychotherapy less effective
B. ECT & psychopharmacology more treatment
C. Hallucinations usually present
D. Hospitalization required
Correct answer: Psychotherapy less effective
Que 25: Which of the following thought disorders are of content level?
A. Thought blocking
B. Delusions
C. Thought retardation
D. Illusion
Correct answer: Delusions
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