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Kerala PSC Junior Health Inspector Grade II Exam Question Paper with Answer

KERALA PSC PREVIOUS YEARS PAPERS
HEALTH INSPECTOR GRADE II

Below is solved exam paper of 'KPSC (Kerala PSC) Junior Health Inspector Grade II, Department: Health Services, Cat.No: 306/2020 & 443/2020 to 452/2020' exam Question Paper of the year 2021. There are 100 questions in this. Medium of the exam was in English and the question paper code is 090/2021. The exam was held on 23/07/2021. Which is useful for nurses to participate in any nursing staff recruitment exam. Click below for paper.

previous year exam


1. Cerebral aqueduct connects :

(A) 3rd ventricle with lateral ventricle 

(B) Two lateral ventricles

(C) 4th ventricle with lateral ventricle 

(D) 3rd ventricle with 4th ventricle


Correct Answer: 3rd ventricle with 4th ventricle


2. Fibrous deep layer of superficial fascia over the abdomen is :

(A) Scarpa’s fascia 

(B) Sibson’s fascia

(C) Waldeyer’s fascia 

(D) Camper’s fascia


Correct Answer: Scarpa’s fascia


3. Ptosis, squint and loss of reflexes to light and accommodation is seen in paralysis of :

(A) Optic Nerve 

(B) Occulo-motor Nerve

(C) Trochlear Nerve 

(D) Trigeminal Nerve


Correct Answer:  Occulo-motor Nerve


4. Witche’s milk is secreted by :

(A) Mother 

(B) New born

(C) Both 

(D) None


Correct Answer: New born


5. Retinacula are thickened portions of :

(A) Superficial fascia 

(B) Deep fascia

(C) Tendons 

(D) Muscles


Correct Answer: Deep fascia


6. Bile pigments are formed in :

(A) Liver

 (B) Red blood cells

(C) Bone marrow 

(D) All the above


Correct Answer: Bone marrow


7. Muscles of mastication are supplied by :

(A) Facial Artery 

(B) Maxillary Artery

(C) Middle meningeal Artery 

(D) Occipital Artery 


Correct Answer: Maxillary Artery


8. The supporting cells of central nervous system are :

(A) Neurons

 (B) Hyaline cells

(C) Neuroglia 

(D) Schwann cells


Correct Answer: Neuroglia


9. Chordae tendinae are attached to the :

(A) Papillary muscles 

(B) Atrio-ventricular valves

(C) Both 

(D) None


Correct Answer: Both

Kerala PSC Junior Health Inspector old paper

10. The type of cartilage in which chondrocytes are arranged in small groups within the cell nests is :

(A) Fibro cartilage 

(B) Hyaline cartilage

(C) Elastic cartilage 

(D) Fibro-elastic cartilage


Correct Answer: Hyaline cartilage


11. Which of the following statements are wrong about the care of eyes?

(i) Cataract is the most common cause of blindness in India.

(ii) Trachoma is another term for bacterial conjunctivitis.

(iii) Most common cause of eye injuries in children is due to fire crackers.

(iv) One lakh units of Vitamin A is given twice yearly to children below 5 years.

(A) Only (i) and (iv) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iv) 

(D) Only (i) and (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (ii) and (iv)


12. Which of the following statements are correct about proteins?

(i) Animal proteins are superior to vegetable proteins.

(ii) Animal proteins contain all nine ‘essential’ amino-acids needed by the body.

(iii) Pulses are known as poorman’s meat.

(iv) Vegetable proteins contain less ‘essential’ aminoacids.

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) 

(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)

(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) 

(D) All of the above 


Correct Answer: All of the above


13. Which of the following statement is/are wrong about dietary goals (prudent diet) recommended by the various expert committees of WHO?

(i) Dietary fat should be limited to approximately 15-30 percent of total daily intake.

(ii) Saturated fat should contribute no more than 10 percent of the total energy intake.

(iii) Protein should account for approximately 15-30 percent of the daily intake.

(iv) Salt intake should be reduced to an average of not more than 15 gram per day.

(A) Only (i)

 (B) Only (ii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iii) 

(D) Only (iii) and (iv)


Correct Answer: Only (iii) and (iv)


14. The following are bacterial food borne infections except :

(A) Botulism 

(B) Oxyuriasis

(C) Shigellosis 

(D) Brucellosis


Correct Answer: Oxyuriasis


15. Which of the following bacteria are gram positive?

(i) Coryne bacterium Diphtheriae

(ii) Bacillus Anthracis

(iii) Salmonella Typhi

(iv) Escherichia Coli

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (i) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iii) 

(D) Only (iii) and (iv)


Correct Answer: Only (i) and (ii)


16. Which of the following methods of sterilization are working using the technique of moist heat?

(i) Hot air oven

(ii) Autoclave

(iii) Incinerator

(iv) Hospital sterilizer

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (i) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iv) 

(D) Only (ii) and (iii) 


Correct Answer: Only (ii) and (iv)


17. Regarding biotransformation of drugs synthetic reactions (phase II reactions) are given below. Pick the wrong ones :

(i) Oxydation

(ii) Hydrolysis

(iii) Acetylation

(iv) Methylation

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (i) and (iii)

(C) Only (i) and (iv) 

(D) Only (ii) and (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (i) and (ii)


18. The following are drugs excreted through lungs except :

(i) Alcohol

(ii) Halothane

(iii) Paraldehyde

(iv) Penicillin

(A) Only (i) and (iii) 

(B) Only (iv)

(C) Only (ii)

 (D) None of the above


Correct Answer: Only (iv)

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19. The following conditions are caused by Vitamin A deficiency except :

(i) Xerophthalmia

(ii) Osteomalacia

(iii) Scurvy

(iv) Keratomalacia

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iv) 

(D) Only (iii) and (iv)


Correct Answer: Only (ii) and (iii)


20. Which of the following techniques are used for the identification of malnourished children?

(i) Height

(ii) Midarm circumference

(iii) Weight

(iv) Waist hip ratio

(A) Only (i) and (iii) 

(B) Only (i) and (iv)

(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) 

(D) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) 


Correct Answer: Only (i), (ii) and (iii)


21. Temporary loss of consciousness :

(A) Stupor 

(B) Coma

(C) Fainting

 (D) Somnolent


Correct Answer: Fainting


22. Father of First Aid :

(A) Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek

 (B) Friedrich Esmarch

(C) Samuel Hahnemann 

(D) Mathieu Orfila


Correct Answer: Friedrich Esmarch


23. Displacement of one or more bones at Joint :

(A) Fracture 

(B) Dislocation

(C) Sprain 

(D) Strain


Correct Answer: Dislocation


24. The wound caused by blunt force :

(A) Abrasion 

(B) Laceration

(C) Bruise 

(D) Incised


Correct Answer: Laceration


25. He aim of first aid are except :

(A) Save life 

(B) Ease pain

(C) Declaring death 

(D) Promote recovery


Correct Answer: Declaring death 


26. Pain while swallowing is called :

(A) Dyspnoea 

(B) Dysphagia

(C) Dyspepsia 

(D) Odynophagia


Correct Answer: Odynophagia


27. Bleeding from Nose :

(A) Epistaxis 

(B) Malena

(C) Haemoptysis 

(D) Hemorrhoid


Correct Answer: Epistaxis


28. Excessive Urination at Night :

(A) Dysurea 

(B) Anuria

(C) Nocturia 

(D) Pneumaturia


Correct Answer: Nocturia


29. Deviation of eyes from their normally conjugate position is termed as :

(A) Optic Atropy 

(B) Squint

(C) Papilloedema 

(D) Conjunctivitis


Correct Answer: Squint


30. Discharge from the ear :

(A) Otalgia 

(B) Otorrhoea

(C) Deafness 

(D) Tinnitus 


Correct Answer: Otorrhoea


31. SNID associated with :

(i) Pulse Polio Immunization Programme

(ii) Universal Immunization Programme

(iii) Expanded Programme of Immunization

(A) Only (i) and (iii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) 

(D) None


Correct Answer: Only (ii)


32. Dengue fever transmitted by :

(i) Culex mosquitoes

(ii) Anopheles mosquitoes

(iii) Aedes mosquitoes

(A) Only (ii) and (iii)

 (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (iii) 

(D) Only (ii)


Correct Answer: Only (iii)


33. Prevention of emergence or development of risk factors in population groups in which they have not yet appeared :

(i) Primodial Prevention

(ii) Primary Prevention

(iii) Secondary Prevention

(A) Only (ii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (iii) 

(D) Only (i)


Correct Answer: Only (i)


34. A pulmonary TB patient with bacteriological confirmed TB at the beginning of treatment who was smear or culture negative in the last month of treatment :

(i) Treatment success

(ii) Treatment completed

(iii) Cured

(A) Only (ii) and (iii) 

(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (iii)

 (D) Only (ii)


Correct Answer: Only (iii)


35. Vaccine preventable disease :

(i) Chickun gunia

(ii) Dengue fever

(iii) Japanese encephalitis

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (iii)

(C) Only (ii) 

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) 


Correct Answer: Only (iii)


36. “Removal of pistia plant” is an antilarval method for :

(i) Culex mosquitoes

(ii) Anopheles mosquitoes

(iii) Aedes mosquitoes

(A) Only (i) and (iii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii) 

(D) Only (i)


Correct Answer: Only (i)


37. Link worker scheme associated with :

(i) RNTCP

(ii) NACP

(iii) UIP

(A) Only (i) 

(B) Only (iii)

(C) Only (ii) 

(D) Only (ii) and (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (ii)


38. Infectious agent must be capable for surviving outside of human host in the environment till

it finds a new host :

(i) Direct transmission

(ii) Indirect transmission

(iii) Air borne transmission

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (iii) 

(D) Only (i)


Correct Answer: Only (i)


39. In asexual cycle, the Merozoites penetrates the RBC and pass through the stage of Trophozoit and Schizont :

(i) Hepatic phase

(ii) Erithrocytic phase

(iii) Gametogeny

(A) Only (i) 

(B) Only (ii)

(C) Only (iii) 

(D) None of these


Correct Answer: Only (ii)


40. Mode of transmission of Leptospirosis :

(i) Direct contact

(ii) Indirect contact

(iii) Droplet infection

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) 

(B) Only (i) and (ii)

(C) Only (ii) and (iii) 

(D) Only (i) and (iii) 


Correct Answer: Only (i), (ii) and (iii)


41. Minimum number of concurrent supervision carried out by a health supervisor in a month :

(A) 2

 (B) 4

(C) 6 

(D) 10


Correct Answer: 6


42. Which among the following centres are conducting full day monthly conference?

(A) PHC and CHC 

(B) PHC, CHC, Sub centre

(C) PHC and sub centre 

(D) CHC and Sub centre


Correct Answer: PHC and CHC


43. Which among the following organization is providing food support in ICDS programmes in

India?

(A) ILO 

(B) UNDP

(C) FAO 

(D) CARE


Correct Answer: CARE


44. Primaquine is not advised for :

(A) Children under 2 years 

(B) Ante natal

(C) Above 65 year old

 (D) All the above


Correct Answer: Above 65 year old


45. Post-partum programme aims at :

(A) PHC upgradation 

(B) Palliative care

(C) Mother and child health 

(D) None


Correct Answer: Mother and child health


46. 21 hormonal and 7 iron pills are available in a packet of :

(A) Mala-N only

 (B) Mala N and Mala D

(C) Mala N and progestogen – only – pill 

(D) All the above


Correct Answer: Mala N and Mala D


47. Which of the following statement is TRUE about Abortion?

(A) Birth control

(B) Abortion allows only up to 12 weeks of pregnancy in India

(C) No private institutions are allowed to perform MTP

(D) Experienced nurses are eligible to perform MTP


Correct Answer: Birth control


48. Wrong statement about WHO :

(A) Distribution of morbidity statistics related to health problems are the functions

(B) WHO does not itself do research

(C) Protection of the quality of air is an important activity

(D) The executive board has 55 members


Correct Answer: WHO does not itself do research


49. Number of beds prescribed in a PHC as per the guidelines of Indian public health standards :

(A) 15 

(B) 6

(C) 30 

(D) 50


Correct Answer: 6


50. Which of the following officer is responsible for keeping field diary?

(A) Health supervisor 

(B) Health inspector

(C) Jr. health inspector 

(D) All the above 


Correct Answer: All the above


51. Zoogleal layer which related with :

(i) Water Treatment

(ii) Sewage Treatment

(iii) Air pollution

(A) Only (i) and (ii)

 (B) Only (iii) and (ii)

(C) Only (i) and (iii) 

(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (i) and (ii)


52. One gram of faeces may contains :

(i) 100 million of E.Coli

(ii) 500 million of E.Coli

(iii) 1000 million of E.Coli

(A) Only (i) 

(B) Only (ii)

(C) Only (iii) 

(D) None of these


Correct Answer: Only (iii)


53. After chlorination contact period is calculated as :

(i) 60 minutes

(ii) 30 minutes

(iii) 10 minutes

(A) Only (i) 

(B) Only (iii)

(C) Only (ii) 

(D) None of these


Correct Answer: Only (i)


54. Sanitation barrier means :

(i) Excreta disposal

(ii) Water purification

(iii) Environmental Sanitation

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) 

(B) Only (i)

(C) Only (ii) 

(D) Only (i) and (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (i)

Staff Nurse Previous Years Exam Solved papers

55. Disease transmitted by Lice :

(i) Epidemic Typhus

(ii) Relapsing Fever

(iii) KFD

(A) Only (i) and (ii)

 (B) Only (i)

(C) Only (ii) and (iii) 

(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) 


Correct Answer: Only (i) and (ii)


56. Elements of drinking water surveillance :

(i) Sanitary survey

(ii) Sampling

(iii) Bacteriological surveillance

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (i) and (iii)

 (D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (i), (ii) and (iii)


57. “Back-Siphoning” is related to the water supply system :

(i) Intermittent system

(ii) Continues system

(iii) Duel water supply system

(A) Only (ii) and (iii) 

(B) Only (i) and (ii)

(C) Only (i) 

(D) Only (ii)


Correct Answer: Only (i)


58. Base exchange process removes :

(i) Turbidity

(ii) Temporary hardness

(iii) Permanent hardness

(A) Only (i) and (ii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (ii)

 (D) Only (iii)


Correct Answer: Only (iii)


59. Air pollutant :

(i) Sulphur dioxide

(ii) Cadmium

(iii) Ozone

(A) Only (i) and (iii) 

(B) Only (ii) and (iii)

(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) 

(D) Only (i) and (ii)


Correct Answer: Only (i), (ii) and (iii)


60. Acceptable noise level at classroom :

(i) 30-40 dB

(ii) 32-40 dB

(iii) 35-40 dB

(A) Only (i) 

(B) Only (ii)

(C) Only (iii)

 (D) None of these 


Correct Answer: Only (ii)

Kerala Health Inspector Previous year Papers

61. Expand CHEB :

(A) Chief Health Education Bureau

(B) Central Health Education Bureau

(C) Child Health Education Bureau

(D) None of these


Correct Answer: Central Health Education Bureau


62. Series of speeches on selected subjects are called as :

(A) Workshop 

(B) Symposium

(C) Seminar 

(D) Panel discussion


Correct Answer: Symposium


63. Role play is –––––––– approach in Health communication.

(A) Mass (

B) Individual

(C) Group 

(D) All of the above


Correct Answer: Group


64. To spread a particular doctrine is :

(A) opinion 

(B) education

(C) adoption 

(D) propaganda


Correct Answer: propaganda


65. In group discussion Optimum Number of members are :

(A) 2 – 4 

(B) 4 – 6

(C) 6 – 12 

(D) 12 – 16


Correct Answer: 6 – 12


66. Three dimensional Teaching aid is :

(A) Mock-up 

(B) Radio

(C) Black board 

(D) Field trip 


Correct Answer: Mock-up


67. World Health Day theme 2020 :

(A) Universal Health Coverage

(B) Jeevate Vilayulla Jagratha

(C) To Ensure Status of Nurses and Mid wives

(D) None of these


Correct Answer: To Ensure Status of Nurses and Mid wives


68. Affective Level of Learning is based on :

(A) Emotions 

(B) Knowledge

(C) Skills 

(D) Exercise


Correct Answer: Emotions


69. First step in adoption process :

(A) Trial 

(B) Interest

(C) Evaluation 

(D) Awareness


Correct Answer: Awareness


70. An example of Cultural Communication barrier is :

(A) Noise 

(B) Disaster

(C) Illiteracy 

(D) Emotions

Correct Answer: Illiteracy

71. Which committee recommended that Zila Parishad should be made responsible for planning at the district level?
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee 
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) VKRV Rao Committee 
(D) Singhvi Committee

Correct Answer: Ashok Mehta Committee

72. Father of Local Self Government in India :
(A) Lord Wellesely 
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lalbahadur Shastri 
(D) None of the above 

Correct Answer: None of the above

73. If the nuisance arises from any defect of a structural character who is responsible to abate the nuisance :
(A) Owner of the premises 
(B) Health officer
(C) Person who informs the nuisance
 (D) None of the above

Correct Answer: Owner of the premises

74. Benefits of time management includes :
(i) Less stress
(ii) Greater productivity and efficiency
(iii) Missed dead lines
(iv) Increased opportunity for advancement
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct 
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are not correct
(C) Only (iv) and (ii) are correct 
(D) Only (iii) is not correct

Correct Answer: Only (iii) is not correct

Kerala PSC Health Inspector Solved Paper

75. Which of the following is false about money management process?
(A) Expense tracking 
(B) Budgeting
(C) Portability
 (D) Evaluating taxes of one’s money

Correct Answer: Portability

76. What are the strategies to be followed for better time management?
(A) Understand you are not perfect 
(B) Deligate work
(C) Do not multitask 
(D) All of the above are correct

Correct Answer: All of the above are correct

77. Main principle of disposal of BMW is segregation has to be done at :
(A) The time of recycling of waste material
(B) The source of generation of the waste
(C) The incineration/burrying place
(D) None of these 

Correct Answer: The source of generation of the waste

78. Which of the following state has Panchayati Raj institutions?
(A) Delhi 
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tripura 
(D) Mizoram

Correct Answer: Tripura

79. Who can issue registration certificate for lodging house?
(A) Executive authority 
(B) Health Officer
(C) Both (A) and (B)
 (D) None of the above

Correct Answer: Executive authority

80. A manager must receive feedback about a process in order to make necessary adjustments
and must analyze the deviations :
(A) Planning 
(B) Controlling
(C) Organizing 
(D) Commanding

Correct Answer: Controlling

81. “Father dominated Family” is called as :
(A) Patrilineal family 
(B) Matrilineal family
(C) Patriarchal family 
(D) Matriarchal family

Correct Answer: Patriarchal family

82. Father of sociology is :
(A) Freud 
(B) Wundt
(C) Comte 
(D) Plato

Correct Answer: Comte

83. According to Maslow the most basic need of human being is :
(A) Social needs
 (B) Security needs
(C) Self Esteem 
(D) Physiological needs

Correct Answer: Physiological needs

84. Irrational fear of height is :
(A) agoraphobia
 (B) acrophobia
(C) claustrophobia 
(D) haemtophobia

Correct Answer: acrophobia

85. “Bridge Chart” in psychology relates with :
(A) Intelligence 
(B) Motivation
(C) Aggression 
(D) Emotion 

Correct Answer: Emotion 


86. “Immoral basic stuff of personality” is :
(A) Ego 
(B) Super Ego
(C) Id 
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: Id

87. “Non-directive Counselling” is the counselling techniques put forward by :
(A) Maslow 
(B) Carl Roger
(C) Sigmund freud
 (D) Erickson

Correct Answer: Carl Roger

88. TAT is :
(A) EQ Test 
(B) IQ Test
(C) Projective Test 
(D) SQ Test

Correct Answer: Projective Test

89. –––––––– are the behaviour pattern of people in everyday life.
(A) Mores 
(B) Norms
(C) Folk ways 
(D) Customs

Correct Answer: Folk ways

90. The concept of Ingroup and Outgroup put forward by :
(A) W.G. Sumner 
(B) Yung
(C) Wundt 
(D) C.H. Coolie
Correct Answer: W.G. Sumner

91. The modifiable risk factors of hypertension is one among the following :
(A) Age 
(B) Sex
(C) Genetic factor 
(D) Socio economic status

Correct Answer: Socio economic status


92. Which of the following statement is not correct about Coronary Heart Disease?
(A) Individuals with Type A personality are not prone to CHD
(B) Risk of Myocardial Infarction is increased by oral contraceptive pills
(C) Hypertension contributes to CHD
(D) Sedentary life style increases risk of CHD

Correct Answer: Individuals with Type A personality are not prone to CHD

93. The rapid and non-invasive method for assessing body fat in obesity :
(A) Weight 
(B) Skin fold thickness
(C) Waist-Hip ratio 
(D) Body Mass Index 

Correct Answer: Skin fold thickness

94. The most sensitive and specific screening technique in defecting small tumors in breast :
(A) Breast Self Examination 
(B) Thermography
(C) Mammography 
(D) Palpation by physician

Correct Answer: Mammography

95. The specific advantage of rotary kiln type of incinerator among the following :
(A) Adequate for all infectious waste
(B) Drastic reduction in weight and volume of waste
(C) Decomposition of genotoxic substances and heat resistant chemicals
(D) Low operating cost

Correct Answer: Decomposition of genotoxic substances and heat resistant chemicals

96. The clinical signs of focal disturbance of cerebral function which is rapidly developed and
lasting for more than 24 hrs or leading to death :
(A) CHD 
(B) Stroke
(C) TIA 
(D) Cardio Vascular Disease

Correct Answer: Stroke

97. ‘Abbreviated Injury Scale’ is used to measure one among the following :
(A) Seriousness of injury in morbidity of accidents and injuries
(B) Disability in accidents and injury
(C) Mortality in accidents and injuries
(D) None of these

Correct Answer: Seriousness of injury in morbidity of accidents and injuries

98. The organisation which support Adopt-a-Gran programme :
(A) OASIS 
(B) NCOP
(C) Help Age India 
(D) CBO

Correct Answer: Help Age India

99. WHO Recommendations regarding palliative care includes all the aspects except :
(A) Drug availability 
(B) Policy
(C) Education
 (D) Research

Correct Answer: Research

100. The World Diabetes Day is observed on :
(A) June 14th 
(B) November 14th
(C) December 14th 
(D) November 4th

Correct Answer: November 14th

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