Mock Test For Norcet Exam 2022 #153

 Mock Test For Norcet Exam

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Instructions:

To get the most out of this quiz, follow the instructions below:

1- Read each question and their option carefully and choose the right answer.

2- Answer and rational are given below, must read them.

3- If you need more clarification and any objection then please direct them in the comment box.

Part - 2

Que 1: The innermost layer of epidermis is called as

A. Lucidum

B. Granulosum

C. Cornium

D. Germinative

Correct answer: Germinative

Que 2: Brownish black pigmented area in the midline of the abdomen of a pregnant women extending from xiphisternum to symphysis pubis

A. Striae gravidarum

B. Linea nigra

C. Chloasma gravidarum

D. Linea alba

Correct answer: Linea nigra

Que 3: Type of sensation lost on same side in Brown Sequard syndrome is

A. Temperature

B. Pain

C. Touch

D. Proprioception

Correct answer: Proprioception

Rational: Brown sequard syndrome is caused by damage to one half of the spinal cord, resulting in paralysis and loss of proprioception on the same side as the injury or lesion, and loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side as the lesion.

Que 4: All of the following amino acids are aliphatic, except

A. Leucine

B. Tyrosine

C. Alanine

D. Valine

Correct answer: Tyrosine

Rational: Aliphatic amino acid are

• Alanine

• Leucine

• Valine

• Glycine

• Isoleucine

Aromatic amino acids are

• Tyrosine

• Tryptophan

• Phenylamine

• Histidine

Que 5: Fibrous deep layer of superficial fascia over the abdomen is :

A. Scarpa’s fascia 

B. Camper’s fascia

C. Sibson’s fascia

D. Waldeyer’s fascia 

Correct Answer: Scarpa’s fascia

Que 6: All among the following are the contraindications of NPWT, except

A. Clotting disorders

B. Neoplastic tissue

C. Mesh graft

D. Eschar

Correct answer: Mesh graft

Rational: Mesh graft is the only indication among all the contraindications of negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT). 

NPWT is used to fix skin grafts and tissue flaps, on the other hand it is never recommended if the patient has clotting disorders, eschar, neoplastic tissue or any untreated infection.

Que 7: Fetus starts secreting insulin by

A. 8 weeks

B. 16 weeks

C. 10 weeks

D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: 12 weeks

Rational: 

• Fetal swallowing begins by 10–12 weeks

• Fetus starts producing urine by 12 weeks

• Fetus starts secreting insulin by 12 weeks.

• Fetal breathing movement begin by 11 weeks

• Sex of a baby can be 100% identified on USG by 14 weeks

Que 8: Incision made into the perineum to enlarge the vaginal outlet and facilitate delivery is called

A. Vaginotomy

B. Episiotomy

C. Vaginoplasty

D. None of the above

Correct answer: Episiotomy

Rational: Episiotomy is defined as a surgical incision made over the perineum and vulva during delivery to increase the diameter of the vulval outlet during child birth and to prevent perineal tears.

Episiotomy is a surgically given perineal tear of second degree.

Que 9: The nurse is assessing the motor and sensory function of an unconscious client. The nurse should use which technique to test the client's peripheral response to pain

A. Nail bed pressure

B. Sternal rub

C. Pressure on the orbital rim

D. Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

Correct answer: Nail bed pressure

Que 10: Which one of the following sign being elicited in Meningitis

A. Brudzinski's sign

B. Trousseus sign

C. Cullen's sign

D. Chvostek sign

Correct answer: Brudzinski's sign

Que 11: The best way of increasing the nutritive value of pulses is

A. Mixing pulses

B. Germination

C. Fortification

D. Parboiling

Correct answer: Germination

Que 12: Which of the following special investigation is used to identify structural chromosomal abnormality of foetus in utero.

A. HCG

B. Acetyl choline esterase

C. Maternal Serum alpha fetoprotein

D. Fluorescence in Situ Hybridization (FISH)

Correct answer: Fluorescence in Situ Hybridization (FISH)

Que 13: Drug of choice for treatment and prevention of further episodes of bipolar mood disorder is

A. Lithium

B. Fluoxetine

C. Amitryptiline

D. Chlordiazepoxide

Correct answer: Lithium

Que 14: The characteristic symptom of hypoglycemia which is an early symptom of insulin reaction

A. Severe thirst

B. Diaphoresis

C. Coma

D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: Drowsiness

Test Series For Nursing Competitive Exam

Que 15: Which of the following not symptoms of increase ICP

A. Irritability

B. Headache

C. Vomiting

D. Clear consciousness

Correct answer: Clear consciousness

Que 16: A patient with a history of myasthenia gravis is admitted to the medical surgical unit. All of the following tests should the nurse expect to prescribe for the patient; except

A. Electromyograph (EMG)

B. Tensilon test

C. Electroencephalogram (EEG)

D. Nerve conduction studies

Correct answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Rational: 

Electromyograph (EMG): Myasthenia gravis produces sporadic but progressive weakness and abnormal fatigue in skeletal muscle. Hence it helps to differentiate nerve disorder from muscle disorder.

Tensilon test: It confirms the diagnosis by temporarily improving muscle function after an IV injection of edrophonium or neostigmine .

Que 17: A nursing student is providing the routine Foley’s catheter care to a female patient. The student will place the patient in which position for this procedure

A. Lithotomy position

B. Side lying position

C. Supine position

D. Dorsal recumbent position

Correct answer: Dorsal recumbent position

Rational: The position for urinary catheter care for female patient is dorsal recumbent. The male patient is placed in supine position for urinary catheter care.

Que 18: What diagnostic test would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater

A. Endoscopy

B. Histology

C. Gastroscopy

D. Barium swallow

Correct answer: Endoscopy

Rational: Endoscopy determines bleeding, pain, difficulty swallowing and a change in bowel habits. This would yield good visualization of the ulcer crater.

Que 19: A 15 year old child is brought to the casualty with a history of choking of a peanut. The child suddenly becomes unresponsive. What is the action to be taken

A. Mask ventilation

B. Intubation

C. Heimlich’s maneuver

D. CPR

Correct answer: CPR

Mock Test For AIIMS Norcet 2022

Que 20: Identify which among the following is considered as building blocks of theories

A. Concepts

B. Numbers

C. Research data

D. Hypotheses

Correct answer: Concepts

Rational: When concepts are linked together, they form propositions that provide the framework for a theory.

Research data are used in constructing and testing a theory.

Hypotheses are tested in a research study. They may or may not have been formulated on the basis of a theory.

Que 21: Rubeola virus is the causative agent of

A. Chickenpox

B. Respiratory infections

C. Measles

D. Nipah virus infection

Correct answer: Measles

Rational: Measles is a highly contagious infectious disease caused by the Rubeola virus.

Que 22: A child with large VSD present at

A. 2 days

B. 6 months

C. 2 weeks

D. 2 months

Correct answer: 2 months

Rational: In children with a larger VSD, symptoms of acute CHF (like respiratory distress, poor weight gain, fatigue after feeding) appear at age 4 to 6 weeks when pulmonary vascular resistance falls.

Que 23: The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are called

A. Neutrophils

B. Lymphocytes

C. Eosinophils

D. Basophils

Correct answer: Neutrophils

Que 24: Checking the equipment and supplies periodically is known as

A. Inventory

B. Item analysis

C. Indent

D. Cost analysis

Correct answer: Inventory

Que 25: Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of ‘face to pubis’ delivery

A. Gynecoid pelvis

B. Android pelvis

C. Platypelloid pelvis

D. Anthropoid pelvis

Correct answer: Anthropoid pelvis

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