Mock Test For Nursing Entrance Exam
Hello friends, for everyone, here we provide for free competitive questions everyday. And today in this series again free questions and answers series for AIIMS Norcet 2022 exam #164 is available for you. Which is useful for nurses to participate in any nursing staff recruitment exam. Click below for today's online test. For Pdf file Scroll Downward.
Instructions:
To get the most out of this quiz, follow the instructions below:
1- Read each question and their option carefully and choose the right answer.
2- Answer and rational are given below, must read them.
3- If you need more clarification and any objection then please direct them in the comment box.
PART - I
PART - II
Que 1: The instrument that detects and records Fetal Heart Rate is
(a) Ultrasound transducer
(b) Tocodyanamometer
(c) Fetoscope
(d) Accelerometer
Correct answer: Fetoscope
Que 2: A nurse can assess a mother for postpartum infection by the finding
(a) Increased temperature of 100.4°F with in 24 hours
(b) Elevated WBC
(c) Increased appetite
(d) Increased pulse
Correct answer: Elevated WBC
Que 3: The weight of nulligravid uterus is
(a) 60 gms
(b) 120 gms
(c) 800 gms
(d) 1000 gms
Correct answer: 60 gms
Que 4: Breast extents from
(a) 2 - 5th rib
(b) 2 - 6th rib
(c) 1 - 4 rib
(d) 3 - 6 rib
Correct answer: 2 - 6th rib
Que 5: When teaching a client about contraception, which is most effective method to prevent STD's?
(a) Spermicides
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Condoms
(d) Vasectomy
Correct answer: Condoms
Que 6: “Pendulum exercises” prescribed for frozen shoulders are
(a) Active exercises
(b) Passive exercises
(c) Active-assisted exercises
(d) Assisted exercises
Correct answer: Passive exercises
Solution: One of the primary benefits of the pendulum exercise is that it is passive. This means that there is very little contraction of the muscles surrounding shoulder.
Que 7: The best method for estimation of bone mineral density is
(a) Quantitative computed tomography
(b) Single energy x-ray absorptiometry
(c) Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
(d) Radiographic absorptiometry
Correct answer: Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry
Solution: The most common and accurate way uses a dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan.
DEXA uses low-dose x-rays.The test can measure bone density at your hip and lumbar spine.
Nursing Model Question Paper with Answers PDF
Que 8: Which statement regarding clinical union of a fracture of bone is FALSE?
(a) No abnormal movement at fracture site
(b) Attempted angulation is painful
(c) Radiographically fracture line is visible
(d) Safe for unprotected stress
Correct answer: Safe for unprotected stress
Solutin: Clinical union of fracture is defined by no pain/tenderness or movement at fracture site. It is unsafe in unprotected stress.
Que 9: Which element is constituent of biotin?
a) Calcium
b) Phosphorus
c) Sulphur
d) Magnesium
Correct answer: Sulphur
Solution: Biotin or nicotinic acid consists of sulphur. it acts as coenzyme needed for protein and fatty acid synthesis.
Que 10: In cerebrum, auditory area occurs in
a) Frontal lobe
b) Parietal lobe
c) Temporal lobe
d) Occipital lobe
Correct answer: Temporal lobe
Que 11: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of upper motor neuron lesion?
(a) Muscle atrophy
(b) Spasticity
(c) Hyperreflexia
(d) Babinski sign
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Correct answer: Muscle atrophy
Solution: Damage to upper motor neuron leads to a characteristic set of clinical symptoms known as the upper motor neuron syndrome.
These symptoms can include weakness, spasticity, clonus, and hyperreflexia.
A patient with an upper motor neuron disease will exhibit weakness with minimal associated atrophy (atrophy may be absent).
Que 12: Hamstring muscles are
(a) Tensor fascia lata, Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus
(b) Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Biceps femoris, Adductor magnus
(c) Biceps femoris, Adductor magnus, Gracilis, Sernitendinosus
(d) Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Gracilis, Adductor magnus
Correct answer: Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus, Biceps femoris, Adductor magnus
Solution: Hamstring muscles are skeletal muscles at the back of thigh.We use them to walk, climb stairs, do squats and perform many other leg movements.
Que 13: The commonest complaint of women fitted with an Intra Uterine Device is
(a) Vaginal Bleeding
(b) Pain
(c) Pelvic infection
(d) Uterine perforation
Correct answer: Vaginal Bleeding
Que 14: In the care of polytrauma patients, the duty of nursing staff includes all of the EXCEPT
(a) Ensuring intravenous access
(b) Administering prescribed medication
(c) Collecting laboratory specimen
(d) Consent for emergency surgery
Correct answer: Consent for emergency surgery
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Que 15: Which of the following symptoms is the indicator of imminent death?
(a) A weak, slow pulse
(b) Increased muscle tone
(c) Fixed, dilated pupils
(d) Slow, shallow respirations
Correct answer: Fixed, dilated pupils
Que 16: The wandering phagocytes found in the alveoli are called
a) Alveolar macrophages
b) Pulmonary cells
c) Goblet cells
d) Chalice cells
Correct answer: Alveolar macrophages
Solution: An alveolar macrophage, pulmonary macrophage, (or dust cell) is a type of macrophage, a professional phagocyte, found in the airways and at the level of the alveoli in the lungs, but separated from their walls.
Que 17: A client name Ranu with weight 65 kg with pulmonary edema is ordered heparin -10 units/kg/hr. How much units of heparin should he receive each hour?
a) 450 Units/Hour
b) 550 Units/Hour
c) 650 Units/Hour
d) 750 Units/Hour
Correct answer: 650 Units/Hour
Solution: 650UNITS/HOUR.
650 units/hr 6
10/kg/hr
10x65= 650 units/hr.
Que 18: During organ transplantation the living donor must give consent related to all components, except
a) Consent process
b) Health Evaluation process
c) Surgical procedure
d) No follow up
Correct answer: No follow up
Que 19: The common side effect of CPAP mask is
a) Claustrophobia
b) Hydrophobia
c) Acrophobia
d) Nomophobia
Correct answer: Claustrophobia
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Que 20: What type of questioning might be used in a patient assessment?
a) Open and closed
b) Open and shut
c) Exposed and closed
d) Out and in
Correct answer: Open and closed
Que 21: A patient with a diagnosis of End Stage Disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except:
a) Fluid volume excess
b) Decreased RBC
c) Electrolyte imbalance
d) Impaired immune function
Correct answer: Decreased RBC
Solution: Main concern in End satge renal failure (ESRD) is fluid volume excess ,altered electrolyte imbalance and altered immune system.
Que 22: Submucosal resection is the surgical correction of
a) Cleft palate
b) Deviated nasal septum
c) Aneurism
d) Glaucoma
Correct answer: Deviated nasal septum
Solution: A submucosal resection is a surgical procedure that rectifies a nasal septum that has been deviated. This operation is performed to eliminate unnecessary tissue from the nose's filters, also called enlarged turbinates.
Que 23: The basic difference between psychosis and neurosis is
a) Clinical features
b) Severity
c) Insight
d) Duration of illness
Correct answer: Insight
Solution: Insight is present in neurosis and it’s absent in psychosis.
Que 24: Hysteria is a
a) Mood disorder
b) Neurotic disorder
c) Psychotic disorder
d) Personality disorder
Correct answer: Neurotic disorder
Solution: Neurosis is a mild mental disorder not arising from organic diseases instead, it can occur from stress, depression or anxiety. hysteria may seen in stress.
Que 25: Imipramine is an antidepressant of which group?
a) Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
b) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)
c) Moni Amine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOI)
d) Non-selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibition
Correct answer: Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA)
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