Neurological disorders require rapid assessment and critical thinking. Whether you are preparing for AIIMS NORCET or NCLEX-RN, mastering Neuro emergencies is non-negotiable.
This daily mock test covers high-yield topics like Stroke (CVA) management, differentiating between Ischemic and Hemorrhagic types. We also focus on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assessment, signs of Meningitis (Kernig’s & Brudzinski’s signs), Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP), and nursing care during Seizures. Sharpen your clinical judgment with these solved MCQs.
Brain Injuries & Neuro Assessment Quiz
💡 Golden Points to Remember:
- Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS): Max Score = 15, Min Score = 3 (Comatose < 8).
- Cushing's Triad (Increased ICP): Hypertension (Widened Pulse Pressure), Bradycardia, and Irregular Respirations.
- Meningitis Signs: Nuchal Rigidity (Stiff neck), Positive Kernig's & Brudzinski's signs.
- Stroke (FAST): Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, Time to call emergency.
- Seizure Care: Priority is safety. Turn patient to side, do not restrain, nothing in mouth.
Neurological System Quiz
Q1.Which assessment finding is considered the earliest and most sensitive indicator of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
A. Pupillary changes
B. Altered Level of Consciousness (LOC)
C. Cushing's Triad
D. Motor weakness
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. A change in the Level of Consciousness (restlessness, confusion, drowsiness) is the first sign of rising ICP because the cerebral cortex is highly sensitive to hypoxia. Pupil changes (A) and Cushing's Triad (C) are late signs.
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Q2.A patient with a suspected stroke presents with facial drooping, arm weakness, and slurred speech. The priority nursing action is to:
A. Check blood glucose level
B. Prepare for a CT scan of the brain
C. Administer aspirin
D. Start IV fluids
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. A non-contrast CT scan is the gold standard to differentiate between Ischemic and Hemorrhagic stroke, which determines treatment (e.g., tPA vs surgery). Glucose (A) is checked, but CT is the critical diagnostic priority.
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Q3."Kernig's Sign" is a diagnostic sign for which condition?
A. Sciatica
B. Meningitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Stroke
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Kernig's sign (pain/resistance upon extending the knee when the hip is flexed) indicates meningeal irritation, characteristic of Meningitis.
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Q4.What is the maximum possible score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. 20
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. The GCS ranges from 3 to 15. Eye opening (4) + Verbal response (5) + Motor response (6) = 15. A score of 3 indicates deep coma.
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Q5.Which medication is the drug of choice for terminating Status Epilepticus?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B. Lorazepam (Ativan) or Diazepam
C. Valproic Acid
D. Phenobarbital
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Rapid-acting Benzodiazepines like IV Lorazepam or Diazepam are the first-line treatment to stop the seizure activity immediately. Phenytoin (Option A) is used for long-term control.
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Q6."Battle's Sign" (ecchymosis behind the ear) is an indication of:
A. Basilar Skull Fracture
B. Facial fracture
C. Orbital fracture
D. Mandibular fracture
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Battle's sign (mastoid ecchymosis) and Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) are classic signs of a fracture at the base of the skull.
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Q7.A patient with a Left-sided Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke) will typically exhibit:
A. Left-sided hemiplegia
B. Right-sided hemiplegia and Aphasia
C. Impulsive behavior
D. Neglect of the left side
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. A stroke on the Left side of the brain affects the Right side of the body (contralateral control) and often affects the speech center (Broca's/Wernicke's), causing Aphasia.
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Q8.Which position is recommended for a patient after a Lumbar Puncture to prevent a spinal headache?
A. High Fowler's
B. Prone
C. Supine (Flat)
D. Trendelenburg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. Keeping the patient flat (supine) for 4-6 hours after the procedure helps prevent CSF leakage from the puncture site, reducing the risk of a spinal headache.
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Q9."Brudzinski's Sign" is positive when:
A. Flexion of the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees
B. Extension of the leg causes pain
C. Tapping the cheek causes twitching
D. Dorsiflexion of the foot causes calf pain
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Brudzinski's sign is positive if passive flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation.
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Q10.Which type of seizure involves a brief loss of consciousness with a "blank stare", common in children?
A. Grand Mal (Tonic-Clonic)
B. Absence (Petit Mal)
C. Myoclonic
D. Atonic
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Absence seizures typically last seconds and present as daydreaming or staring blankly, without convulsions.
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Q11.Decerebrate posturing is characterized by:
A. Flexion of arms towards the chest
B. Extension and pronation of arms/legs
C. Flaccidity of all limbs
D. Curling into a fetal position
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Decerebrate posturing (extension) indicates severe damage to the brainstem and is a worse prognostic sign than Decorticate (flexion, Option A).
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Q12."Cushing's Triad", a late sign of increased ICP, consists of:
A. Hypertension with widening pulse pressure, Bradycardia, Irregular respirations
B. Hypotension, Tachycardia, Tachypnea
C. Hypertension, Tachycardia, Fever
D. Hypotension, Bradycardia, Bradypnea
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. The body attempts to perfuse the brain against high pressure by raising BP (Systolic rises, Diastolic stays same = Widening Pulse Pressure), slowing the heart (Bradycardia), and altering breathing.
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Q13.The nurse is assessing a patient with a head injury using the Glasgow Coma Scale. The patient opens eyes to pain, uses inappropriate words, and withdraws from pain. The GCS score is:
A. E2, V3, M4 = 9
B. E2, V3, M5 = 10
C. E3, V4, M4 = 11
D. E2, V2, M4 = 8
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Eye: Pain = 2. Verbal: Inappropriate words = 3. Motor: Withdraws = 4. Total = 9.
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Q14.Which drug is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce cerebral edema?
A. Furosemide
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Acetazolamide
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Mannitol draws fluid from the brain tissue into the vascular space via osmosis, effectively lowering Intracranial Pressure (ICP).
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Q15."Homonymous Hemianopsia" is a common visual defect in stroke patients defined as:
A. Blindness in one eye
B. Loss of half of the visual field in the same side of both eyes
C. Double vision
D. Tunnel vision
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. It is the loss of the same side (e.g., right half) of the visual field in both eyes, causing the patient to neglect that side of their environment.
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Q16.Which causative organism is responsible for "Meningococcal Meningitis"?
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Listeria monocytogenes
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Neisseria meningitidis causes Meningococcal meningitis, which is highly contagious and can cause petechial rash and rapid deterioration.
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Q17.The "Aura" preceding a seizure is:
A. The post-ictal confusion phase
B. A sensory warning sign (smell, light, feeling) before the seizure
C. The muscle contraction phase
D. The loss of consciousness
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. An Aura is a subjective sensation (visual, auditory, olfactory, or déjà vu) that serves as a warning immediately before the onset of a seizure.
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Q18.A patient with a GCS score of 8 or less is generally considered to be in:
A. Mild head injury
B. Moderate head injury
C. Coma / Severe head injury
D. Vegetative state
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. A GCS ≤8 indicates severe brain injury and coma ("Less than 8, intubate"). 9-12 is moderate. 13-15 is mild.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q19."Clear fluid" leaking from the nose (Rhinorrhea) or ears (Otorrhea) after a head trauma should be tested for which substance to confirm it is CSF?
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Sodium
D. Potassium
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) contains glucose. Mucus does not. A positive glucose test (or Halo sign on gauze) confirms the leak is CSF.
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Q20.Which position should be avoided in a patient with increased Intracranial Pressure?
A. Head elevated 30 degrees
B. Neck in neutral position
C. Prone or Trendelenburg
D. Supine with head mid-line
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. Prone or Trendelenburg (head down) positions increase intrathoracic pressure and inhibit venous drainage from the brain, dangerously raising ICP. Head elevated 30 degrees is optimal.
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Q21.A patient is scheduled for a Lumbar Puncture. The nurse knows that the needle is typically inserted between which vertebrae?
A. L1 and L2
B. L3 and L4 (or L4-L5)
C. T12 and L1
D. S1 and S2
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. The spinal cord typically ends at L1/L2. To avoid damaging the cord, the needle is inserted below this level, usually at the L3-L4 or L4-L5 interspace.
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Q22."Broca's Aphasia" is characterized by:
A. Inability to understand spoken language
B. Difficulty in forming words (Expressive aphasia) but comprehension is intact
C. Fluent but meaningless speech
D. Total loss of speech and comprehension
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Broca's area controls motor speech. Damage here causes non-fluent, broken speech, but the patient understands what is said. Option A/C describes Wernicke's aphasia.
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Q23.Which of the following is a classic sign of Meningitis in infants?
A. Bulging Fontanelle
B. Sunken Fontanelle
C. Babinski Sign
D. Hypothermia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Increased intracranial pressure from meningitis causes the anterior fontanelle to bulge in infants. Nuchal rigidity may not be present in very young children.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q24.Tissue Plasminogen Activator (tPA) must be administered within how many hours of the onset of ischemic stroke symptoms?
A. 12 hours
B. 3 to 4.5 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 24 hours
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. The standard therapeutic window for IV tPA is within 3 hours (extended to 4.5 hours in select patients) to dissolve the clot and salvage brain tissue.
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Q25."Dilantin" (Phenytoin) toxicity is indicated by:
A. Gingival Hyperplasia
B. Nystagmus and Ataxia
C. Hypertension
D. Constipation
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. While gingival hyperplasia (Option A) is a common side effect, Nystagmus, Ataxia, and Confusion are signs of acute toxicity (levels >20 mcg/ml).
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Q26.Which vital sign change is characteristic of "Neurogenic Shock" following a spinal cord injury?
A. Hypertension and Tachycardia
B. Hypotension and Bradycardia
C. Hypotension and Tachycardia
D. Hypertension and Bradycardia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Loss of sympathetic tone causes massive vasodilation (Hypotension) and unopposed vagal tone (Bradycardia). This distinguishes it from hypovolemic shock (Tachycardia).
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Q27.The "Post-Ictal State" refers to:
A. The seizure activity itself
B. The warning sign before a seizure
C. The period of recovery/confusion immediately after a seizure
D. The interval between two seizures
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. The post-ictal phase is the recovery period where the brain "resets," characterized by drowsiness, confusion, headache, and sleepiness.
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Q28.A patient with a head injury has a GCS of 6. The nurse should anticipate:
A. Discharge to home
B. Endotracheal Intubation and mechanical ventilation
C. Oral feeding
D. Frequent ambulation
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. A GCS ≤8 indicates coma and inability to protect the airway ("Less than 8, Intubate"). Airway protection is the priority.
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Q29.Which assessment is specific for "Cerebellar Function"?
A. Visual Acuity
B. Finger-to-Nose test and Heel-to-Shin test
C. GCS
D. Deep Tendon Reflexes
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. These tests assess coordination and balance, which are the primary functions of the Cerebellum.
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Q30."Transient Ischemic Attack" (TIA) differs from a Stroke in that:
A. Symptoms are permanent
B. Symptoms resolve completely within 24 hours
C. It is hemorrhagic
D. It causes coma
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. A TIA ("Mini-stroke") causes temporary neurological deficits due to ischemia that resolve spontaneously, usually within minutes to hours, without permanent infarction.
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Q31.For a patient with increased ICP, the nurse should avoid which nursing activity?
A. Administering stool softeners
B. Suctioning frequently for >15 seconds
C. Keeping the head mid-line
D. Elevating the head of the bed
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Suctioning increases intrathoracic and intracranial pressure and causes hypoxia. It should be limited to <10 a="" also="" and="" are="" avoided="" be="" div="" done="" given="" necessary.="" not="" only="" ption="" seconds="" should="" so="" softeners="" straining="" when="">
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Q32."Opisthotonos" posturing (severe arching of the back) is a sign of:
A. Meningitis / Tetanus
B. Stroke
C. Spinal Shock
D. Brain Tumor
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Opisthotonos is a spasm of the muscles causing backward arching of the head, neck, and spine, seen in severe Meningitis and Tetanus.
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Q33.Which cranial nerve is affected in "Bell's Palsy"?
A. CN III (Oculomotor)
B. CN V (Trigeminal)
C. CN VII (Facial)
D. CN X (Vagus)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. Bell's Palsy is the acute, unilateral paralysis of the facial muscles due to inflammation of the Facial Nerve (CN VII).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q34.A patient taking Carbamazepine (Tegretol) should have which lab value monitored regularly?
A. Blood Glucose
B. WBC count (Complete Blood Count)
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to Leukopenia, Anemia, and Thrombocytopenia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q35."Dysphagia" in a stroke patient places them at high risk for:
A. Aspiration Pneumonia
B. Gastric Ulcer
C. Diarrhea
D. Hypertension
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Difficulty swallowing (Dysphagia) allows food/fluid to enter the trachea instead of the esophagus, causing aspiration.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q36.The normal pressure of Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) is approximately:
A. 5-15 mmHg (or 60-200 mmH2O)
B. 20-30 mmHg
C. 50-100 mmHg
D. 1-2 mmHg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Normal ICP is 5-15 mmHg. In water column terms (lumbar puncture manometer), it is roughly 60-200 mmH2O.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q37."Nuchal Rigidity" refers to:
A. Stiffness of the neck
B. Stiffness of the jaw
C. Flaccidity of limbs
D. Loss of sensation in the neck
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. Nuchal Rigidity is the resistance to flexion of the neck, a hallmark sign of meningeal irritation (Meningitis).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q38.Which part of the brain controls vital functions like heart rate and respiration?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Brainstem (Medulla Oblongata)
D. Thalamus
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. The Medulla Oblongata contains the vital centers for cardiac, respiratory, and vasomotor control. Damage here is often fatal.
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Q39.In a patient with a "Basilar Skull Fracture", the nurse should avoid inserting:
A. IV cannula
B. Foley catheter
C. Nasogastric (NG) tube
D. Oral airway
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. An NG tube can accidentally pass through the fracture in the cribriform plate into the brain. An Orogastric tube should be used instead.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q40."Status Epilepticus" is defined as a seizure lasting longer than:
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 10 seconds
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Current guidelines define Status Epilepticus as a seizure lasting >5 minutes or recurrent seizures without full recovery of consciousness in between.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q41.A patient with a head injury has clear fluid leaking from the ear. Which sign indicates this fluid is CSF?
A. Positive Trousseau's sign
B. Halo Sign (Ring sign) on gauze
C. Battle's sign
D. Kernig's sign
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. When CSF mixed with blood drips onto filter paper/gauze, the blood stays in the center and the CSF spreads out, forming a yellowish "Halo" ring.
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Q42."Sundowning" is a term used to describe:
A. Seizures occurring at night
B. Increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon/evening
C. Vision loss in dim light
D. Decreased heart rate during sleep
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Sundowning is a symptom of Alzheimer's and dementia where behavioral problems (confusion, aggression) worsen as the day progresses into evening.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q43.Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder attacking the myelin sheath of the peripheral nervous system?
A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)
C. Myasthenia Gravis
D. Parkinson's Disease
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. GBS is an acute autoimmune demyelination of peripheral nerves, causing ascending paralysis. MS (Option A) attacks the central nervous system myelin.
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Q44.The "Romberg Test" assesses:
A. Visual fields
B. Hearing
C. Balance and Proprioception
D. Muscle strength
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. The Romberg test (standing with feet together, eyes closed) evaluates the dorsal columns of the spinal cord (proprioception) and vestibular function.
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Q45.In a patient with "Myasthenia Gravis", which neurotransmitter is deficient at the neuromuscular junction?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Acetylcholine
D. GABA
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. Antibodies destroy Acetylcholine receptors, preventing muscle contraction. It is treated with Anticholinesterase drugs (e.g., Pyridostigmine).
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Q46."Pill-rolling tremor" is a classic sign of:
A. Parkinson's Disease
B. Huntington's Chorea
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Essential Tremor
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. This resting tremor of the thumb and fingers is a cardinal sign of Parkinson's, along with rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability.
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Q47.Which drug is used to decrease the production of CSF in conditions like Hydrocephalus or Glaucoma?
A. Mannitol
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Dexamethasone
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces the formation of aqueous humor and CSF.
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Q48.A patient with a spinal cord injury at T6 or above is at risk for "Autonomic Dysreflexia". The priority nursing action is to:
A. Administer Atropine
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
C. Lay the patient flat
D. Apply compression stockings
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Sitting the patient up lowers blood pressure (orthostatic drop) to counteract the severe hypertension caused by the autonomic response.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q49."Wernicke's Aphasia" affects which part of the brain?
A. Frontal Lobe
B. Temporal Lobe
C. Parietal Lobe
D. Occipital Lobe
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Wernicke's area (language comprehension) is located in the Temporal Lobe. Broca's area (motor speech) is in the Frontal Lobe.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q50.The most common cause of "Subarachnoid Hemorrhage" is:
A. Trauma
B. Rupture of a Berry Aneurysm
C. Hypertension
D. AV Malformation
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Spontaneous SAH is most frequently caused by the rupture of a saccular (Berry) aneurysm in the Circle of Willis. Trauma is the most common cause overall, but "Berry Aneurysm" is the classic medical cause asked.
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Q51.Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XI (Spinal Accessory)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. The Spinal Accessory nerve innervates the Trapezius (shrug) and Sternocleidomastoid (turn head) muscles.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q52."Doll's Eye Phenomenon" (Oculocephalic reflex) is used to assess:
A. Brainstem function in a comatose patient
B. Visual acuity
C. Cortical blindness
D. Pupil reaction
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. If the brainstem is intact, the eyes move opposite to head rotation (like a doll). If brainstem dead, eyes remain fixed (negative reflex).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q53.A patient with a "Right-sided Brain Stroke" may exhibit:
A. Speech deficits
B. Impulsive behavior and poor judgment
C. Slow, cautious behavior
D. Right-sided paralysis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Right-brain damage leads to left-sided hemiplegia and behavioral changes like impulsivity, denial of deficits, and poor safety awareness. Left-brain damage causes caution and aphasia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q54.Which vitamin deficiency is associated with "Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome"?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B3
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Thiamine deficiency (common in alcoholics) causes Wernicke's encephalopathy (acute) and Korsakoff's psychosis (chronic).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q55.The "Babinski Reflex" in an adult (dorsiflexion of big toe) indicates damage to:
A. Lower Motor Neurons
B. Upper Motor Neurons (Pyramidal tract)
C. Cerebellum
D. Peripheral nerves
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. A positive Babinski is pathological in adults and indicates a lesion in the Corticospinal (Pyramidal) tract/Upper Motor Neuron.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q56.Which of the following is a classic symptom of "Multiple Sclerosis"?
A. Resting tremor
B. Intention tremor and scanning speech (Charcot's Triad)
C. Mask-like face
D. Ascending paralysis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Charcot's Triad for MS includes Nystagmus, Intention Tremor, and Scanning Speech (staccato speech).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q57."Ptosis" (drooping eyelid) is a sign of dysfunction of which cranial nerve?
A. CN II
B. CN III (Oculomotor)
C. CN IV
D. CN VI
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. The Oculomotor nerve innervates the levator palpebrae superioris muscle. Palsy causes the eyelid to droop.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q58.In a patient with a seizure, the nurse's priority during the "Ictal" (active) phase is to:
A. Restrain the patient
B. Insert an oral airway
C. Protect the patient from injury and maintain airway patency (side-lying)
D. Administer oral medication
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct. Never restrain or force objects into the mouth. The goal is safety (padding head, clearing area) and positioning on the side to prevent aspiration.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q59."Hemiplegia" refers to:
A. Paralysis of all four limbs
B. Paralysis of one side of the body
C. Paralysis of both legs
D. Weakness of one limb
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Hemi- means half. Hemiplegia is paralysis of one vertical half. Paraplegia is lower half. Quadriplegia is all four.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q60.The "Circle of Willis" is an anastomotic system of arteries located at the:
A. Base of the brain
B. Surface of the heart
C. Hilum of the kidney
D. Popliteal fossa
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct. It connects the internal carotid and vertebral arterial systems, providing collateral blood flow to the brain.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
🔗 Read Also: More Med-Surg Questions (Renal & Respiratory System)
Frequently Asked Questions (Neuro System)
Q1: What is the lowest possible score on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Ans: The lowest possible score is 3 (Deep Coma or Death). A score of 0 does not exist in GCS.
Q2: What is the priority nursing intervention during a seizure?
Ans: The priority is Safety and Airway. Turn the patient to the side to prevent aspiration, cushion the head, and never force anything into the mouth.
Q3: Which position is contraindicated in a patient with Increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP)?
Ans: Trendelenburg Position (Head down) is contraindicated as it increases ICP. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30-45 degrees.
Question for You:
Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Hypothalamus
D. Medulla Oblongata
👉 Comment your answer below!
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