Intranatal Care: Labour Stages & Management Quiz
Intranatal Care (Care during Labour) is the most critical part of Midwifery Nursing. In today's Daily Mock Test, we focus entirely on the Physiological Changes during Labour.
This quiz covers high-yield questions on the 4 Stages of Labour (First to Fourth stage), differentiating True vs. False Labour, and the Mechanism of Labour (Engagement, Descent, Flexion, etc.). We also focus on Fetal Monitoring (Decelerations), Partograph plotting, and emergency management of Cord Prolapse. These questions are essential for AIIMS NORCET, CHO, and NCLEX-RN aspirants.
Midwifery: Labour & Management
Q1.Question:
Which of the following is the only positive (confirmatory) sign of true labour?
Which of the following is the only positive (confirmatory) sign of true labour?
A. Painful uterine contractions
B. Spontaneous rupture of membranes
C. Progressive cervical effacement and dilation
D. Expulsion of the mucus plug (Show)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because true labour is defined by uterine contractions that result in progressive cervical change (effacement and dilation). Option A is incorrect because Braxton Hicks contractions are painful but do not change the cervix. Option D is incorrect as "Show" can occur days before true labour.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q2.Question:
The "Second Stage" of labour begins with full cervical dilation and ends with:
The "Second Stage" of labour begins with full cervical dilation and ends with:
A. Rupture of membranes
B. Expulsion of the fetus
C. Expulsion of the placenta
D. Onset of regular contractions
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Second Stage is the stage of expulsion, starting from 10 cm dilation and ending with the birth of the baby. Option C describes the end of the Third Stage. Option D describes the start of the First Stage.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q3.Question:
What is the correct sequence of the mechanism of labour for a vertex presentation?
What is the correct sequence of the mechanism of labour for a vertex presentation?
A. Engagement, Flexion, Descent, Internal Rotation, Extension
B. Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation, Extension, Restitution, External Rotation
C. Flexion, Descent, Engagement, Internal Rotation, Extension
D. Engagement, Internal Rotation, Descent, Flexion, Extension
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the standard cardinal movements are Descent, Flexion, Internal Rotation of head, Extension (delivery of head), Restitution, External Rotation, and Expulsion. Note: Engagement usually precedes these or happens simultaneously with descent.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q4.Question:
According to WHO guidelines for the Partograph, the Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) should be recorded every:
According to WHO guidelines for the Partograph, the Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) should be recorded every:
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 hour
D. 4 hours
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because in the active phase of labour, WHO recommends plotting the Fetal Heart Rate every 30 minutes to detect distress early. Contractions are also monitored every 30 minutes. Cervical dilation (Option D) is monitored every 4 hours.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q5.Question:
Which drug is the first-line agent for the "Active Management of the Third Stage of Labour" (AMTSL) to prevent PPH?
Which drug is the first-line agent for the "Active Management of the Third Stage of Labour" (AMTSL) to prevent PPH?
A. Methylergometrine
B. Carboprost
C. Oxytocin
D. Misoprostol
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Oxytocin (10 IU IM or IV) is the gold standard and safest drug for AMTSL to promote uterine contraction. Option A is incorrect because Methylergometrine is contraindicated in hypertension. Option D is a second/third-line agent.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q6.Question:
A "Late Deceleration" of the Fetal Heart Rate observed on a CTG indicates:
A "Late Deceleration" of the Fetal Heart Rate observed on a CTG indicates:
A. Head compression
B. Cord compression
C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Fetal well-being
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Late Decelerations (dip in heart rate after the contraction peak) indicate that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen (Uteroplacental insufficiency). Option A causes Early Decelerations. Option B causes Variable Decelerations.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q7.Question:
What is the primary nursing action if the umbilical cord prolapses during labour?
What is the primary nursing action if the umbilical cord prolapses during labour?
A. Push the cord back into the uterus
B. Place the mother in Trendelenburg or Knee-Chest position
C. Administer Oxytocin immediately
D. Cover the cord with dry gauze
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because gravity helps relieve the pressure of the fetal presenting part on the prolapsed cord, maintaining blood flow to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because handling the cord causes spasm. Option D is incorrect; it should be wet saline gauze.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q8.Question:
The "Bishop Score" is used to assess:
The "Bishop Score" is used to assess:
A. Fetal well-being
B. Maturity of the placenta
C. Readiness of the cervix for induction of labour
D. Need for Cesarean section
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Bishop Score evaluates cervical dilation, effacement, consistency, position, and station to predict the success of labour induction. A score >6-8 indicates a favorable cervix.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q9.Question:
Nitrazine paper turns which color when it comes in contact with amniotic fluid?
Nitrazine paper turns which color when it comes in contact with amniotic fluid?
A. Yellow
B. Olive Green
C. Dark Blue
D. Red
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Amniotic fluid is alkaline (pH 7.0-7.5), turning the pH-sensitive Nitrazine paper Blue. Vaginal secretions are acidic and would turn the paper Yellow or stay Orange.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q10.Question:
What is the normal physiological duration of the "Third Stage" of labour in a primigravida?
What is the normal physiological duration of the "Third Stage" of labour in a primigravida?
A. 5 to 30 minutes
B. 1 to 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 to 10 minutes
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because the third stage (placental delivery) typically lasts 5-30 minutes, maximum normal 30 minutes (same for primi and multi). If it exceeds 30 minutes, it is considered a "Retained Placenta." Option B refers to the second stage duration.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q11.Question:
Which type of Episiotomy is most commonly practiced due to its lower risk of extending into the anal sphincter?
Which type of Episiotomy is most commonly practiced due to its lower risk of extending into the anal sphincter?
A. Median (Midline)
B. Mediolateral
C. Lateral
D. J-shaped
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Mediolateral incision is directed diagonally away from the rectum, significantly reducing the risk of third or fourth-degree perineal tears compared to a Midline incision. Option A heals faster but risks rectal injury.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q12.Question:
During a vaginal examination, the nurse notes that the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines. The "Station" is recorded as:
During a vaginal examination, the nurse notes that the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines. The "Station" is recorded as:
A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. +1
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Station 0 represents the engagement of the fetal head at the level of the ischial spines. Negative numbers indicate the head is above the spines, and positive numbers indicate it is below.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q13.Question:
Which drug is the specific antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity?
Which drug is the specific antidote for Magnesium Sulfate toxicity?
A. Potassium Chloride
B. Calcium Gluconate
C. Sodium Bicarbonate
D. Naloxone
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Calcium Gluconate (10 ml of 10% solution IV) antagonizes the neuromuscular blocking effects of Magnesium Sulfate. Option D is the antidote for Opioids.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q14.Question:
The "Transition Phase" of the First Stage of labour is characterized by cervical dilation of:
The "Transition Phase" of the First Stage of labour is characterized by cervical dilation of:
A. 0 to 3 cm
B. 4 to 7 cm
C. 8 to 10 cm
D. 10 cm to Delivery
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Transition Phase is the final part of the First Stage, where the cervix dilates from 8 cm to 10 cm (full dilation). Option A is the Latent Phase. Option B is the Active Phase.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q15.Question:
The "Schultze Mechanism" of placental separation is described as:
The "Schultze Mechanism" of placental separation is described as:
A. The placenta separates from the edges first ("Dirty Duncan")
B. The placenta separates from the center first and appears shiny side out
C. The placenta is manually removed
D. The placenta is retained > 30 mins
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because in the Schultze mechanism, the central portion separates first, and the fetal surface (shiny, amniotic side) appears first at the vulva. Option A describes the Duncan mechanism (maternal side/rough surface).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q16.Question:
A "Reactive" Non-Stress Test (NST) in a fetus >32 weeks is defined as:
A "Reactive" Non-Stress Test (NST) in a fetus >32 weeks is defined as:
A. No accelerations in 20 minutes
B. 2 or more accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds in 20 minutes
C. Consistent late decelerations
D. Fetal heart rate < 110 bpm
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the "15x15" rule (2 accelerations of 15 bpm above baseline for 15 seconds) indicates an intact fetal central nervous system and well-being. Option A is "Non-reactive."
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q17.Question:
Which maneuver is performed to deliver the fetal head by controlling its extension and protecting the perineum?
Which maneuver is performed to deliver the fetal head by controlling its extension and protecting the perineum?
A. Leopold’s Maneuver
B. Ritgen’s Maneuver
C. McRoberts Maneuver
D. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit Maneuver
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Ritgen’s Maneuver involves applying upward pressure on the fetal chin through the perineum and downward pressure on the occiput to control delivery speed. Option C is for Shoulder Dystocia. Option D is for Breech.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q18.Question:
The nurse palpates the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus. This finding is expected:
The nurse palpates the uterine fundus at the level of the umbilicus. This finding is expected:
A. Immediately after delivery
B. 12 hours after delivery
C. 2 days after delivery
D. 1 week after delivery
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Immediately after placental delivery → fundus is firm and at the level of the umbilicus (U-0).
It stays at umbilicus for the first 12–24 hours.
Then descends ~1 cm/day (day 1 still ≈ umbilicus, day 2 ≈ 1–2 cm below, etc.).
If fundus is above umbilicus immediately postpartum → suspect full bladder or clots.
Midway between symphysis and umbilicus is seen in fourth stage (first 1–2 hours) only if the uterus is boggy or bladder is full, not normal.
It stays at umbilicus for the first 12–24 hours.
Then descends ~1 cm/day (day 1 still ≈ umbilicus, day 2 ≈ 1–2 cm below, etc.).
If fundus is above umbilicus immediately postpartum → suspect full bladder or clots.
Midway between symphysis and umbilicus is seen in fourth stage (first 1–2 hours) only if the uterus is boggy or bladder is full, not normal.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q19.Question:
Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss greater than:
Primary Postpartum Hemorrhage (PPH) is defined as blood loss greater than:
A. 200 ml after vaginal delivery
B. 500 ml after vaginal delivery
C. 500 ml after Cesarean section
D. 1000 ml after vaginal delivery
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because WHO defines Primary PPH as blood loss >500 ml within 24 hours of a vaginal birth. For Cesarean section, the threshold is usually >1000 ml.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q20.Question:
"Ferning pattern" seen under a microscope on a dried slide of vaginal fluid confirms:
"Ferning pattern" seen under a microscope on a dried slide of vaginal fluid confirms:
A. Urinary incontinence
B. Rupture of Membranes
C. Vaginal infection
D. Presence of meconium
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because amniotic fluid crystallizes into a fern-leaf pattern when dried due to its sodium chloride content, confirming rupture of membranes. Urine does not fern.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q21.Question:
Which fontanelle is diamond-shaped and closes by 12-18 months of age?
Which fontanelle is diamond-shaped and closes by 12-18 months of age?
A. Posterior Fontanelle
B. Anterior Fontanelle
C. Sphenoid Fontanelle
D. Mastoid Fontanelle
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Anterior Fontanelle (Bregma) is diamond-shaped and is the last to close (12-18 months). The Posterior Fontanelle (Lambda) is triangular and closes by 6-8 weeks.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q22.Question:
Bandl’s Ring is a pathological sign of:
Bandl’s Ring is a pathological sign of:
A. Precipitate Labour
B. Obstructed Labour
C. Preterm Labour
D. Uterine Inertia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Bandl's Ring is a pathological retraction ring that forms between the active upper segment and the passive lower segment of the uterus, indicating impending rupture due to obstruction.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q23.Question:
The greenish discoloration of amniotic fluid indicates the presence of:
The greenish discoloration of amniotic fluid indicates the presence of:
A. Vernix caseosa
B. Lanugo
C. Meconium
D. Blood
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because meconium (fetal stool) stains the fluid green. It is a potential sign of fetal distress (hypoxia) in a vertex presentation, though it can be normal in breech presentation.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q24.Question:
Which hormone is responsible for the "Let-down reflex" (Ejection of milk) during breastfeeding?
Which hormone is responsible for the "Let-down reflex" (Ejection of milk) during breastfeeding?
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Oxytocin causes the contraction of myoepithelial cells around the alveoli, ejecting milk. Prolactin (Option A) is responsible for milk production (synthesis).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q25.Question:
The most common cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage is:
The most common cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage is:
A. Uterine Atony
B. Trauma/Lacerations
C. Retained Placenta
D. Coagulopathy
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Uterine Atony (failure of the uterus to contract) accounts for approximately 80% of all PPH cases. The 4 Ts of PPH are Tone, Trauma, Tissue, and Thrombin.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q26.Question:
"Caput Succedaneum" refers to:
"Caput Succedaneum" refers to:
A. Collection of blood between periosteum and skull bone
B. Edema of the scalp tissue that crosses suture lines
C. Overlapping of skull bones
D. Herniation of brain tissue
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Caput Succedaneum is diffuse edema of the fetal scalp caused by pressure during labour. It crosses suture lines and resolves in days. Option A is Cephalhematoma (does not cross sutures).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q27.Question:
Which grip in Leopold’s Maneuvers helps to determine the fetal lie and presentation at the fundus?
Which grip in Leopold’s Maneuvers helps to determine the fetal lie and presentation at the fundus?
A. First Leopold (Fundal Grip)
B. Second Leopold (Lateral Grip)
C. Third Leopold (Pawlik’s Grip)
D. Fourth Leopold (Pelvic Grip)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because the Fundal Grip identifies which fetal pole (head or breech) occupies the fundus. Option B locates the back. Option C determines engagement. Option D assesses head flexion.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q28.Question:
Methylergometrine (Methergine) is contraindicated in a laboring woman with a history of:
Methylergometrine (Methergine) is contraindicated in a laboring woman with a history of:
A. Hypotension
B. Asthma
C. Hypertension / Pre-eclampsia
D. Diabetes
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Methergine is a potent vasoconstrictor and can cause a severe hypertensive crisis or stroke in patients with high blood pressure. Oxytocin is safer in these cases.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q29.Question:
The normal Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) range at term is:
The normal Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) range at term is:
A. 100 – 160 bpm
B. 110 – 160 bpm
C. 120 – 180 bpm
D. 80 – 120 bpm
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because current guidelines (FIGO/ACOG) define the normal baseline FHR as 110 to 160 beats per minute. <110 bradycardia="" is="">160 is Tachycardia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q30.Question:
The overlapping of fetal skull bones to facilitate passage through the birth canal is known as:
The overlapping of fetal skull bones to facilitate passage through the birth canal is known as:
A. Lightening
B. Moulding
C. Engagement
D. Flexion
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Moulding is the physiological adaptation of the fetal head shape to the maternal pelvis dimensions. Lightening (Option A) is the descent of the presenting part into the pelvis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q31.Question:
"Lochia Rubra" is the vaginal discharge observed during the first 1-4 days postpartum. Its characteristic color is:
"Lochia Rubra" is the vaginal discharge observed during the first 1-4 days postpartum. Its characteristic color is:
A. Pinkish-brown
B. Bright red
C. Yellowish-white
D. Clear mucous
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Lochia Rubra consists mainly of blood and decidual tissue, appearing bright red. Option A is Lochia Serosa (4-10 days). Option C is Lochia Alba (10-28 days).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q32.Question:
Which medication is administered to a newborn within 1 hour of birth to prevent Ophthalmia Neonatorum?
Which medication is administered to a newborn within 1 hour of birth to prevent Ophthalmia Neonatorum?
A. Silver Nitrate drops
B. Erythromycin ointment
C. Gentamicin drops
D. Corticosteroid drops
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Erythromycin (or Tetracycline) eye ointment is the standard prophylaxis against Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. Silver nitrate (Option A) is older and causes chemical conjunctivitis, so it is less commonly used now.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q33.Question:
The "APGAR Score" is assessed at which intervals after birth?
The "APGAR Score" is assessed at which intervals after birth?
A. 1 minute and 5 minutes
B. 5 minutes and 10 minutes
C. 1 minute and 10 minutes
D. Immediately and at 1 hour
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because the standard times for APGAR scoring are at 1 minute (to determine need for resuscitation) and 5 minutes (to assess response to resuscitation/prognosis).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q34.Question:
Which tocolytic agent is a Calcium Channel Blocker used to suppress preterm labour contractions?
Which tocolytic agent is a Calcium Channel Blocker used to suppress preterm labour contractions?
A. Terbutaline
B. Magnesium Sulfate
C. Nifedipine
D. Indomethacin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Nifedipine blocks calcium entry into uterine muscle cells, inhibiting contraction. Terbutaline (Option A) is a Beta-agonist. Indomethacin (Option D) is an NSAID.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q35.Question:
A woman in labour complains of severe back pain ("Back Labour"). This is most likely caused by the fetus being in which position?
A woman in labour complains of severe back pain ("Back Labour"). This is most likely caused by the fetus being in which position?
A. Occipito-Anterior
B. Occipito-Posterior
C. Breech
D. Transverse Lie
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because in the Occipito-Posterior (OP) position, the hard fetal occiput presses against the mother's sacrum, causing intense back pain. Anterior positions (OA) are optimal for delivery.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q36.Question:
What is the primary purpose of administering Vitamin K to a newborn?
What is the primary purpose of administering Vitamin K to a newborn?
A. To prevent Rickets
B. To promote growth
C. To prevent Hemorrhagic Disease of the Newborn
D. To boost immunity
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because newborns have a sterile gut and cannot synthesize Vitamin K, which is essential for clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X). IM injection prevents bleeding.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q37.Question:
"Quickening" refers to the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, usually felt between:
"Quickening" refers to the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, usually felt between:
A. 10 – 12 weeks
B. 16 – 20 weeks
C. 24 – 28 weeks
D. 8 – 10 weeks
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Quickening typically occurs at 18-20 weeks in primigravidae and 16-18 weeks in multigravidae.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q38.Question:
During the "Active Phase" of labour, the cervix dilates at a minimum rate of:
During the "Active Phase" of labour, the cervix dilates at a minimum rate of:
A. 0.5 cm/hr in primigravida
B. 1.2 cm/hr in primigravida
C. 2.0 cm/hr in primigravida
D. 3.0 cm/hr in primigravida
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because according to Friedman's curve, the minimum rate of dilation in the active phase is 1.2 cm/hr for nulliparas (primigravida) and 1.5 cm/hr for multiparas. Slower rates indicate protraction disorders.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q39.Question:
Which of the following conditions is an absolute indication for a Cesarean Section?
Which of the following conditions is an absolute indication for a Cesarean Section?
A. Breech Presentation
B. Prolonged Labour
C. Placenta Previa (Totalis)
D. Twin Pregnancy
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because in Total Placenta Previa, the placenta completely covers the internal os, making vaginal delivery impossible without massive hemorrhage. Options A, B, and D are relative indications depending on specifics.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q40.Question:
The "McRoberts Maneuver" is the first-line intervention for which obstetric emergency?
The "McRoberts Maneuver" is the first-line intervention for which obstetric emergency?
A. Breech delivery
B. Shoulder Dystocia
C. Cord Prolapse
D. Eclampsia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because McRoberts maneuver (hyperflexing the mother's legs against her abdomen) flattens the sacrum and rotates the symphysis pubis, freeing the impacted fetal shoulder.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q41.Question:
"Kegel Exercises" are prescribed in the postpartum period to strengthen:
"Kegel Exercises" are prescribed in the postpartum period to strengthen:
A. Abdominal muscles
B. Pelvic floor muscles
C. Back muscles
D. Gluteal muscles
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Kegel exercises target the pubococcygeus muscle (pelvic floor) to prevent or treat urinary stress incontinence and pelvic organ prolapse after childbirth.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q42.Question:
The bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina seen at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy is known as:
The bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina seen at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy is known as:
A. Hegar’s Sign
B. Goodell’s Sign
C. Chadwick’s Sign
D. Palmer’s Sign
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Chadwick’s Sign (Jacquemier's sign) is the violet/bluish color of the mucosa due to increased vascularity. Hegar’s (A) is softening of the lower uterine segment. Goodell’s (B) is softening of the cervix.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q43.Question:
Which type of pelvis is considered the most favorable ("Ideal") for vaginal delivery?
Which type of pelvis is considered the most favorable ("Ideal") for vaginal delivery?
A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynecoid
D. Platypelloid
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Gynecoid pelvis has a round inlet and wide sub-pubic arch, making it the classic female pelvis best suited for childbirth. Android (Option A) is the male type, often causing arrest.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q44.Question:
A "Boggy" uterus palpated in the postpartum period indicates:
A "Boggy" uterus palpated in the postpartum period indicates:
A. A full bladder
B. Uterine Atony
C. Normal involution
D. Retained clots
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because a firm/hard uterus indicates good contraction (hemostasis). A soft, "boggy" uterus indicates Atony (failure to contract), which is the leading cause of hemorrhage.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q45.Question:
The nurse administers Rh (D) Immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother within 72 hours of delivery only if the newborn is:
The nurse administers Rh (D) Immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother within 72 hours of delivery only if the newborn is:
A. Rh-negative
B. Rh-positive and Coombs negative
C. Rh-positive and Coombs positive
D. Preterm
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because RhoGAM prevents sensitization. It is given if the baby is Rh-positive (antigen present) and the mother is not yet sensitized (Direct Coombs Negative). If the baby is Rh-negative, it is not needed.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q46.Question:
"Pre-eclampsia" is characterized by the triad of:
"Pre-eclampsia" is characterized by the triad of:
A. Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria
B. Hypertension, Proteinuria, Seizures
C. Hypertension, Weight loss, Glucose in urine
D. Hypotension, Edema, Proteinuria
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Pre-eclampsia classically presents with high BP (>140/90) and Proteinuria (>300mg/24hr) after 20 weeks. Edema is often present but no longer a strict diagnostic criterion, yet "Triad" questions traditionally include it. Seizures (Option B) define Eclampsia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q47.Question:
Which assessment finding in a newborn is suggestive of "Respiratory Distress Syndrome"?
Which assessment finding in a newborn is suggestive of "Respiratory Distress Syndrome"?
A. Respiratory rate of 40/min
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Nasal flaring and Grunting
D. Abdominal breathing
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because nasal flaring, expiratory grunting, and chest retractions are classic signs of respiratory distress/effort. Acrocyanosis (Option B) is normal in the first 24 hours. Rate 40 (Option A) is normal.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q48.Question:
The "latent phase" of the First Stage of labour ends when cervical dilation reaches:
The "latent phase" of the First Stage of labour ends when cervical dilation reaches:
A. 2 cm
B. 3 to 4 cm
C. 6 cm
D. 8 cm
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct (traditionally 3-4 cm). However, newer Guidelines (Zhang/WHO) suggest the active phase starts at 5-6 cm. But most RRB/Nursing exams still follow the Friedman curve where latent ends and active begins at 3-4 cm.
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Q49.Question:
Prolapse of the uterus is most commonly caused by damage to which ligament during childbirth?
Prolapse of the uterus is most commonly caused by damage to which ligament during childbirth?
A. Round Ligament
B. Broad Ligament
C. Cardinal (Mackenrodt’s) Ligament
D. Ovarian Ligament
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Cardinal (Transverse Cervical) and Uterosacral ligaments are the primary supports of the uterus. Damage leads to descent/prolapse. Round ligaments maintain anteversion, not support.
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Q50.Question:
The term "Gravida" refers to:
The term "Gravida" refers to:
A. Number of pregnancies reaching viability
B. Number of live births
C. Total number of times a woman has been pregnant
D. Number of abortions
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Gravida is the total number of confirmed pregnancies, regardless of the outcome. Parity refers to pregnancies reaching viability (>20/24 weeks).
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Q51.Question:
A pregnant woman at 38 weeks gestation reports sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects:
A pregnant woman at 38 weeks gestation reports sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects:
A. Abruptio Placentae
B. Placenta Previa
C. Uterine Rupture
D. Vasa Previa
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Placenta Previa typically presents with painless bright red bleeding (due to placental attachment near the cervix). Abruptio Placentae (Option A) presents with painful, dark red bleeding and a rigid abdomen.
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Q52.Question:
Which maneuver is used to convert a breech presentation into a cephalic presentation by external manipulation?
Which maneuver is used to convert a breech presentation into a cephalic presentation by external manipulation?
A. Internal Podalic Version
B. External Cephalic Version (ECV)
C. Leopold’s Maneuver
D. Mauriceau Maneuver
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because External Cephalic Version (ECV) is the procedure performed (usually at 36-37 weeks) to turn the fetus from breech/transverse to vertex. Option A is used for the second twin.
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Q53.Question:
The hormone responsible for the relaxation of pelvic ligaments and softening of the cervix at term is:
The hormone responsible for the relaxation of pelvic ligaments and softening of the cervix at term is:
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
C. Relaxin
D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Relaxin is secreted by the corpus luteum and placenta to loosen the symphysis pubis and soften the cervix to facilitate delivery.
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Q54.Question:
"Hyperemesis Gravidarum" is distinguished from morning sickness by the presence of:
"Hyperemesis Gravidarum" is distinguished from morning sickness by the presence of:
A. Nausea and vomiting only in the morning
B. Weight gain
C. Ketonuria and dehydration
D. Increased appetite
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Hyperemesis is severe vomiting leading to weight loss (>5%), electrolyte imbalance, dehydration, and starvation ketosis (ketones in urine). Morning sickness is mild and self-limiting.
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Q55.Question:
What is the recommended dose of Folic Acid for a woman planning pregnancy to prevent Neural Tube Defects?
What is the recommended dose of Folic Acid for a woman planning pregnancy to prevent Neural Tube Defects?
A. 0.4 mcg
B. 400 mcg (0.4 mg)
C. 4 mg
D. 40 mg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the standard prophylactic dose is 400 mcg (0.4 mg) daily. For high-risk women (history of NTD), the dose is higher (4 mg or 5 mg), but 400 mcg is standard.
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Q56.Question:
The "Partograph" must be started only when the woman is in:
The "Partograph" must be started only when the woman is in:
A. Latent phase of labour
B. Active phase of labour (cervix 4 cm dilated)
C. Second stage of labour
D. Third stage of labour
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because WHO guidelines state the Partograph is a tool for monitoring the progress of Active labour (cervix 4 cm). Recording during the latent phase is not recommended.
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Q57.Question:
"Chloasma" or the "Mask of Pregnancy" refers to:
"Chloasma" or the "Mask of Pregnancy" refers to:
A. Dark line from umbilicus to pubis
B. Stretch marks on abdomen
C. Brownish pigmentation on cheeks, nose, and forehead
D. Redness of palms
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Chloasma (Melasma) is the blotchy hyperpigmentation on the face due to hormonal changes. Option A is Linea Nigra. Option B is Striae Gravidarum.
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Q58.Question:
Which fetal position is most common and ideal for birth?
Which fetal position is most common and ideal for birth?
A. Left Occipito-Anterior (LOA)
B. Right Occipito-Posterior (ROP)
C. Left Sacrum-Anterior (LSA)
D. Right Mentum-Anterior (RMA)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because the LOA position (occiput facing anteriorly and to the left) allows the smallest diameter of the fetal head to pass through the pelvis most easily.
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Q59.Question:
The normal volume of Amniotic Fluid at term (36-38 weeks) is approximately:
The normal volume of Amniotic Fluid at term (36-38 weeks) is approximately:
A. 200 – 400 ml
B. 600 – 800 ml
C. 1500 – 2000 ml
D. > 2000 ml
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because amniotic fluid peaks at 800-1000 ml around 34 weeks and decreases to about 600-800 ml at term. <500 is="" ml="" oligohydramnios.="">2000 ml is Polyhydramnios.
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Q60.Question:
Post-term pregnancy (pregnancy extending beyond 42 weeks) is associated with an increased risk of:
Post-term pregnancy (pregnancy extending beyond 42 weeks) is associated with an increased risk of:
A. Macrosomia and Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
B. Low birth weight
C. Preterm labour
D. Hyperemesis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because as the placenta ages (insufficiency), the fetus may pass meconium (aspiration risk). Also, continued growth can lead to Macrosomia (large baby).
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Frequently Asked Questions (Labour)
Q1: What are the 4 Stages of Labour?
Ans: 1st Stage: Cervical dilation (0-10 cm). 2nd Stage: Expulsion of the fetus. 3rd Stage: Expulsion of the placenta. 4th Stage: Observation (1-4 hours postpartum).
Q2: What is the difference between True and False Labour?
Ans: True Labour has regular contractions that increase in intensity and cause cervical dilation. False Labour (Braxton Hicks) is irregular, stops with walking/sedation, and causes no cervical change.
Q3: What does "Late Deceleration" in FHR indicate?
Ans: Late Deceleration indicates Uteroplacental Insufficiency (baby isn't getting enough oxygen). The priority action is to turn the mother to the left side, give Oxygen, and stop Oxytocin.
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