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National Immunization Schedule & Cold Chain MCQs | Community Health Nursing for CHO & NORCET

National Immunization Schedule and Cold Chain Management MCQs for NCLEX NORCET


Immunization Schedule, Vaccines & Cold Chain Quiz

Immunization is the backbone of Public Health and the highest-weightage topic in Community Health Officer (CHO) and AIIMS NORCET exams. In today's Daily Mock Test, we cover the latest National Immunization Schedule.

This quiz includes critical questions on Cold Chain Management (ILR, Deep Freezer), reading the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM), and differentiating between Live (Attenuated) and Killed (Inactivated) vaccines. We also focus on the Routes of Administration (Intradermal, IM, SC) and management of AEFI (Adverse Events Following Immunization). Master these vaccination concepts to secure your rank.

CHN: Immunization & Cold Chain
Q1.Question:
Which diluent is used to reconstitute the BCG vaccine?
A. Distilled Water
B. Normal Saline
C. Dextrose 5%
D. Ringer Lactate
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl) is isotonic and does not cause irritation or tissue damage. Option A is incorrect because Distilled Water is used for the Measles vaccine; using it for BCG can cause local irritation. Options C and D are never used as diluents.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q2.Question:
In the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM), if the central square is lighter than the outer circle, what is the interpretation?
A. The vaccine has expired
B. The vaccine is frozen
C. The vaccine is safe to use
D. The vaccine should be discarded
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because VVM Stage 1 and 2 (inner square lighter than outer circle) indicate the vaccine has not been exposed to excessive heat and is usable. Options A and D are correct only if the inner square matches or is darker than the outer circle (Stage 3 and 4).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q3.Question:
What is the recommended temperature range for storing vaccines in an Ice Lined Refrigerator (ILR) at the Primary Health Center level?
A. -20°C to -10°C
B. +2°C to +8°C
C. 0°C to +4°C
D. +10°C to +15°C
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because the standard cold chain temperature for storing most vaccines (DPT, Tetanus, BCG, Hepatitis B, Pentavalent) is between +2°C and +8°C. Option A applies to the Deep Freezer for Polio/Measles storage at district levels.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q4.Question:
The "Pentavalent" vaccine provides protection against which five diseases?
A. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, Hib
B. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis A, Polio
C. Diphtheria, Polio, Tetanus, Measles, Mumps
D. TB, Polio, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because the Pentavalent vaccine combines antigens for Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) into a single shot. Options B, C, and D list incorrect combinations.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q5.Question:
Which of the following is a "Live Attenuated" vaccine?
A. Tetanus Toxoid
B. Hepatitis B
C. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)
D. Pertussis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because OPV (Sabin) contains live weakened virus. Option A is a Toxoid. Option B is a recombinant DNA vaccine (killed subunit). Option D (Whole cell Pertussis) is a killed/inactivated vaccine.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q6.Question:
The dose of Vitamin A solution administered orally to a 9-month-old infant along with the Measles vaccine is:
A. 50,000 IU
B. 100,000 IU
C. 200,000 IU
D. 2 Lakh IU
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because the first dose of Vitamin A given at 9 months is 100,000 IU (1 ml). Option C and D (200,000 IU) are the doses given at 16 months and subsequent visits every 6 months until 5 years of age.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q7.Question:
Which vaccine is most sensitive to heat and must be stored in the coldest part of the cold chain equipment?
A. Tetanus Toxoid
B. DPT
C. BCG
D. OPV
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: D
Rationale: ionale: Answer D is correct because the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) is the most heat-sensitive vaccine and requires storage at -20°C for long term, or strictly +2 to +8°C for short term. Options A and B are heat stable but freeze sensitive.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q8.Question:
The "Open Vial Policy" of the Government of India applies to which of the following vaccines?
A. Measles
B. BCG
C. Hepatitis B
D. Japanese Encephalitis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Hepatitis B (and DPT, Pentavalent, TT) contains preservatives and can be used for up to 28 days if VVM is valid. Options A, B, and D are reconstituted vaccines that must be used within 4 hours of opening.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q9.Question:
What is the preferred site for intramuscular injection in infants (under 1 year of age)?
A. Gluteus Maximus
B. Deltoid
C. Vastus Lateralis
D. Ventrogluteal
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the Vastus Lateralis (anterolateral thigh) is the most developed muscle in infants and avoids the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve. Option A is contraindicated in infants as the muscle is not fully developed.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q10.Question:
Administration of which vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy?
A. Tetanus Toxoid
B. Hepatitis B
C. Rubella
D. Influenza (Inactivated)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Rubella is a live attenuated vaccine and theoretically poses a teratogenic risk to the fetus (Congenital Rubella Syndrome). Options A, B, and D are killed/toxoid vaccines and are generally considered safe.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q11.Question:
Which of the following vaccines is most sensitive to freezing and must never be frozen?
A. Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)
B. Measles
C. Hepatitis B
D. BCG
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Hepatitis B (along with DPT, Pentavalent, and TT) is an adjuvant vaccine that loses potency and causes abscesses if frozen. Options A, B, and D are heat-sensitive but can withstand freezing (Lyophilized vaccines like BCG and Measles are stable when frozen).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q12.Question:
A mother asks the nurse when the permanent scar will appear after her newborn receives the BCG vaccine. What is the correct response?
A. Within 1 week
B. Within 1 month
C. Within 2 to 3 months
D. No scar will form
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the normal reaction involves a papule forming at 2-3 weeks, becoming an ulcer, and healing to leave a permanent scar by 2-3 months (8-12 weeks). Option A and B are too early for the full process to complete.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q13.Question:
"Mission Indradhanush," launched by the Government of India, primarily focuses on:
A. Improving maternal nutrition
B. Sanitation and hygiene
C. Full immunization coverage for children and pregnant women
D. Adolescent health education
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Mission Indradhanush was launched in 2014 to cover partially immunized and unvaccinated children and pregnant women in pockets of low immunization coverage.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q14.Question:
What is the route and dose of the Fractional Inactivated Polio Vaccine (fIPV) under the Universal Immunization Program?
A. 0.5 ml Intramuscular
B. 0.1 ml Intradermal
C. 0.5 ml Subcutaneous
D. 2 drops Oral
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because fIPV is given as 0.1 ml Intradermally (usually on the right upper arm) at 6 weeks and 14 weeks. Option A is the dose for standard IPV, not fractional. Option D refers to OPV.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q15.Question:
Which test is performed to determine if a freeze-sensitive vaccine (like Tetanus Toxoid) has been damaged by accidental freezing?
A. Mantoux Test
B. Schick Test
C. Shake Test
D. Cold Agglutinin Test
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the Shake Test compares the sedimentation rate of a suspect vial against a control vial; if the suspect vial settles faster with granules, it has been frozen and damaged. Option B is for Diphtheria immunity.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
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Q16.Question:
The Measles vaccine is administered at 9 months of age via which route?
A. Intradermal
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Oral
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the Measles vaccine (and MMR/MR) is given subcutaneously, usually in the right upper arm. Option A is for BCG. Option B is for Pentavalent/PCV.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q17.Question:
According to the National Immunization Schedule, what is the maximum age up to which the BCG vaccine can be given if missed at birth?
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 5 years
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because direct BCG vaccination is permitted up to 1 year of age. Beyond 1 year, the prevalence of latent infection increases, making the vaccine less effective or requiring prior Mantoux testing (though guidelines now limit it to under 1 year).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q18.Question:
Which immunoglobulin is trans-placentally transferred from mother to fetus, providing passive immunity?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because IgG is the smallest immunoglobulin and the only one capable of crossing the placental barrier, protecting the newborn for the first few months. Option A is found in breast milk.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q19.Question:
The "Zero dose" of Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) refers to the dose given:
A. At birth
B. At 6 weeks
C. At 10 weeks
D. At 14 weeks
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because the dose given at birth (within the first 15 days) is termed "Zero dose" as it does not count towards the primary immunization series (1, 2, 3) starting at 6 weeks.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q20.Question:
Rotavirus vaccine is administered to infants to prevent severe diarrhea. What is the mode of administration?
A. Intramuscular injection
B. Intradermal injection
C. Oral drops
D. Subcutaneous injection
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the Rotavirus vaccine is given as 5 drops orally (liquid formulation) at 6, 10, and 14 weeks. It acts locally in the gut.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q21.Question:
A pregnant woman comes for her first antenatal visit at 20 weeks. She has no history of Tetanus vaccination. What is the recommended schedule?
A. One dose of TT immediately
B. Two doses of TT spaced 4 weeks apart
C. Two doses of TT spaced 6 months apart
D. Single booster dose of TT
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because for a primigravida or unimmunized woman, 2 doses of TT (or Td) are given: the first as early as possible, and the second 4 weeks after the first dose.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q22.Question:
Which diluent is used to reconstitute the Measles vaccine?
A. Normal Saline
B. Distilled Water
C. Ringer Lactate
D. Phosphate Buffer
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because the Measles vaccine is reconstituted with sterile Distilled Water. Using Normal Saline (Option A) can damage the live virus or cause precipitation. Note: BCG uses Normal Saline.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q23.Question:
What is the total number of Vitamin A doses given to a child under the National Immunization Program by the age of 5 years?
A. 5 doses
B. 7 doses
C. 9 doses
D. 12 doses
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the 1st dose is at 9 months, and 2nd to 9th doses are given every 6 months starting from 16 months until 5 years. Total = 9 doses.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q24.Question:
Which of the following describes "Herd Immunity"?
A. Immunity developed by an individual after infection
B. Immunity provided by ready-made antibodies
C. Resistance of a group/community to a disease due to a high proportion of immune individuals
D. Immunity acquired from mother to child
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Herd Immunity protects susceptible individuals because the spread of the disease is blocked when a large percentage of the population is immune.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q25.Question:
Which vaccine is associated with the rare complication of "Intussusception" (telescoping of intestines)?
A. OPV
B. Rotavirus
C. Measles
D. Pentavalent
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because earlier versions of the Rotavirus vaccine were linked to intussusception. Current vaccines have a very low risk, but it remains a known potential adverse event.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q26.Question:
Under the Universal Immunization Program, the Japanese Encephalitis (JE) vaccine is given in endemic districts via which route?
A. Intramuscular
B. Oral
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intradermal
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the live attenuated SA-14-14-2 JE vaccine is administered subcutaneously (0.5 ml) at 9 months and 16-24 months.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q27.Question:
Anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a vaccine is classified as:
A. A false contraindication
B. A relative contraindication
C. An absolute contraindication
D. A temporary contraindication
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) is the only true absolute contraindication for administering the same vaccine again. Mild illness (fever) is a temporary/relative contraindication.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q28.Question:
The administration of Tetanus Immunoglobulin (TIG) after a dirty injury provides which type of immunity?
A. Natural Active Immunity
B. Natural Passive Immunity
C. Artificial Active Immunity
D. Artificial Passive Immunity
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: D
Rationale: ionale: Answer D is correct because "Artificial" refers to medical intervention (injection), and "Passive" refers to receiving ready-made antibodies (Immunoglobulin) rather than the body making them. Tetanus Toxoid would be Artificial Active.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q29.Question:
How long can a "Vaccine Carrier" with 4 conditioned ice packs maintain the cold chain temperature?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 to 48 hours
C. 3 to 4 days
D. 1 week
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because a standard vaccine carrier is designed to keep vaccines at +2 to +8°C for approximately 24 to 48 hours, depending on ambient temperature. It is used for transport to outreach sessions.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q30.Question:
The Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) introduced in the immunization schedule primarily protects against:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pneumonia and Meningitis
C. Diarrhea
D. Typhoid
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because PCV protects against Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is a leading cause of bacterial pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis in infants.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
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Q31.Question:
Which of the following vaccines is considered a "killed" or "inactivated" vaccine?
A. BCG
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Yellow Fever
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the Rabies vaccine is an inactivated (killed) virus vaccine. Options A, B, and D (BCG, Measles, Yellow Fever) are all live attenuated vaccines.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q32.Question:
According to the National Immunization Schedule, at what age is the first booster dose of DPT administered?
A. 9 months
B. 12 months
C. 16 – 24 months
D. 5 – 6 years
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the primary series is given at 6, 10, and 14 weeks. The 1st booster is due at 16-24 months. The 2nd booster (DPT-Booster-2) is given at 5-6 years.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q33.Question:
Cold Chain equipment "Deep Freezer" at the District level is primarily used for storing:
A. DPT and Tetanus
B. Diluents
C. Ice packs and Polio/Measles vaccines
D. Hepatitis B
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Deep Freezers (-15°C to -25°C) are used to freeze ice packs and store heat-sensitive but freeze-tolerant vaccines like OPV and Measles. DPT, TT, and Hep B are destroyed by freezing.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q34.Question:
Which adverse event following immunization (AEFI) is specifically associated with the Measles vaccine?
A. Toxic Shock Syndrome
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Paralysis
D. Hypotonic-Hyporesponsive Episode
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) can occur if the reconstituted Measles vaccine is kept for more than 4 hours or contaminated, leading to Staphylococcal growth. Option B is rare. Option C is associated with OPV (VAPP).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q35.Question:
A 6-month-old infant has missed the primary immunization schedule. The nurse should administer which vaccines on the first visit?
A. BCG, OPV-0, Hep B-0
B. BCG, OPV-1, Pentavalent-1, Rotavirus-1, fIPV-1
C. Measles, Vitamin A
D. DPT-1 only
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because up to 1 year, the primary series (Pentavalent, OPV, Rotavirus, fIPV) and BCG (if no scar) can be started. "Zero doses" (Option A) are only for birth. Measles (Option C) is due at 9 months.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q36.Question:
Which vaccine requires a "Shake Test" before administration if the cold chain was breached?
A. Measles
B. BCG
C. Pentavalent
D. OPV
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Pentavalent (containing DPT, Hep B, Hib) is freeze-sensitive. The Shake Test detects if it has been frozen (damaged). Options A, B, and D are not freeze-sensitive in the same way (can be frozen or are lyophilized).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q37.Question:
The "VVM" (Vaccine Vial Monitor) is a heat-sensitive label found on vaccine vials. It monitors:
A. Cumulative heat exposure over time
B. Exposure to freezing temperatures
C. Sterility of the vaccine
D. Expiry date accuracy
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because the VVM changes color based on the cumulative time and temperature exposure, indicating if the heat-labile vaccine is still potent. It does not register freezing (Option B).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q38.Question:
What is the dose of the BCG vaccine for a newborn aged 2 days?
A. 0.05 ml
B. 0.1 ml
C. 0.5 ml
D. 1.0 ml
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because the dose of BCG for infants < 1 month (4 weeks) is 0.05 ml. For infants > 1 month, the dose increases to 0.1 ml.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q39.Question:
Passive immunity obtained by an infant through breast milk is primarily due to:
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because secretory IgA is abundant in colostrum and breast milk, protecting the infant's gut mucosa. IgG is transferred transplacentally, not primarily via milk.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q40.Question:
A child presents with a dog bite. The nurse knows that the Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) schedule for Rabies vaccination (Intradermal) is:
A. Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28
B. Days 0, 3, 7, 28
C. Days 0, 7, 21
D. Days 0, 3, 7
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because the updated "Thai Red Cross" Intradermal regimen (2-2-2-0-2) involves visits on Days 0, 3, 7, and 28. (Note: The IM "Essen" schedule is 0, 3, 7, 14, 28). RRB often asks standard schedules; 0, 3, 7, 28 is the current ID recommendation in India.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q41.Question:
Which disease has been eradicated globally?
A. Polio
B. Smallpox
C. Measles
D. Leprosy
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Smallpox was declared eradicated by the WHO in 1980. Polio is near eradication but not globally certified yet (Type 2/3 eradicated, Type 1 remains in few pockets).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q42.Question:
The "DPT" vaccine is contraindicated in a child with a history of:
A. Diarrhea
B. Fever < 38.5°C
C. Convulsions or neurological disorders
D. Mild local reaction
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the Pertussis component (whole cell) can exacerbate neurological conditions. In such cases, DT (Diphtheria-Tetanus) or acellular Pertussis (if available) is recommended instead.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q43.Question:
Which of the following vaccines is NOT part of the Universal Immunization Program (UIP) in India but is recommended by IAP?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Typhoid Conjugate Vaccine
C. Rotavirus
D. PCV
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Typhoid vaccine is currently not in the national UIP schedule (except in specific endemic surveillance projects), whereas Hep B, Rotavirus, and PCV are fully integrated.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q44.Question:
In the Cold Chain system, what is the role of the "Walk-in Cooler" (WIC)?
A. Storage of vaccines at PHC level
B. Bulk storage of vaccines at Regional/State level
C. Transport of vaccines
D. Freezing ice packs
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Walk-in Coolers are large rooms used for bulk storage of vaccines (DPT, Hep B, etc.) at State or Regional depots, maintained at +2 to +8°C. They are not found at PHCs.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q45.Question:
Which adjuvant is commonly added to the DPT and Tetanus Toxoid vaccines to increase immunogenicity?
A. Mercury
B. Aluminum Phosphate/Hydroxide
C. Phenol
D. Formalin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Aluminum salts act as adjuvants to enhance the body's immune response to the toxoid/killed antigens. This is also why these vaccines must not be frozen (causes clumping of adjuvant).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
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Q46.Question:
The "Td" vaccine (Tetanus and reduced Diphtheria) has replaced the TT vaccine for:
A. Infants
B. Pregnant women and adolescents (10/16 years)
C. Travelers
D. Animal bites
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because recent guidelines (since 2018/19) have replaced TT with Td for pregnant women and for booster doses at 10 and 16 years to maintain immunity against Diphtheria as well.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q47.Question:
Which of the following describes "Ring Immunization"?
A. Vaccinating everyone in a country
B. Vaccinating contacts and people in the immediate vicinity of a case
C. Vaccinating only children under 5
D. Vaccinating elderly people
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Ring Immunization creates a buffer of immune individuals around a confirmed case to prevent spread. It was a key strategy in Smallpox eradication.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q48.Question:
If a child vomits immediately after receiving the OPV drops, what is the nurse's action?
A. Do nothing, the dose is absorbed
B. Administer another dose immediately
C. Administer half the dose
D. Call the doctor
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because if the child spits out or vomits within 15-30 mins, the dose may not be effective. The guideline is to repeat the dose immediately.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q49.Question:
Which vaccine is administered Intradermally on the left upper arm?
A. Measles
B. Pentavalent
C. BCG
D. Hepatitis B
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the standard site for BCG is the left upper arm (deltoid insertion) Intradermally. This standardization helps in checking for scars during surveys.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q50.Question:
Active immunity induced by the Measles vaccine typically lasts for:
A. 1 year
B. 10 years
C. Lifelong
D. 6 months
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because live attenuated viral vaccines (like Measles, Mumps, Rubella) generally provide lifelong immunity after a successful primary course (and boosters where applicable).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q51.Question:
Which vaccine is typically administered at birth along with BCG and OPV-0?
A. DPT
B. Hepatitis B
C. Pentavalent
D. Measles
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because the Hepatitis B birth dose is given within 24 hours of delivery to prevent vertical transmission. DPT, Pentavalent, and Measles are not given at birth in the UIP schedule.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q52.Question:
A 5-year-old child comes for immunization. Which booster doses are due at this age?
A. DPT Booster-2 and OPV
B. DPT Booster-1 and Measles
C. Td and TT
D. Pentavalent and Rotavirus
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because at 5-6 years of age, the 2nd booster for DPT (DPT-B2) is given. Often, a dose of OPV is also administered, though DPT-B2 is the primary specific mandate.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q53.Question:
The "Cold Chain" failure is most likely to occur during:
A. Storage at the manufacturer
B. Transport from State to District
C. Transport from PHC to Sub-center/Outreach
D. Storage in the Walk-in Cooler
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the "last mile" transport (PHC to sub-center/village) relies on vaccine carriers and ice packs, making it the weakest link prone to temperature excursions compared to the stable powered equipment at higher levels.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q54.Question:
Which of the following is an example of a "Toxoid" vaccine?
A. BCG
B. Pertussis
C. Tetanus
D. Polio (IPV)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because Tetanus (and Diphtheria) vaccines are made from inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids), not the bacteria itself. Option A is Live. Option B and D are Inactivated whole/fractional organisms.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q55.Question:
The second dose of Measles (MCV2) or MR vaccine is given at:
A. 12 months
B. 16 – 24 months
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because the second dose of Measles-Rubella (MR) is scheduled at 16-24 months, coinciding with the DPT 1st Booster and OPV Booster.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q56.Question:
In the Pentavalent vaccine, the component "Hib" protects against:
A. Hepatitis B
B. Haemophilus influenzae type b
C. Herpes Simplex
D. Helicobacter pylori
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Hib stands for Haemophilus influenzae type b, a bacterium causing severe pneumonia and meningitis in children. It is often confused with viral flu or Hepatitis.
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Q57.Question:
Ideally, the interval between two doses of live vaccines (if not given simultaneously) should be at least:
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 8 weeks
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because giving two live vaccines less than 4 weeks apart can cause "Interference," where the immune response to the first vaccine inhibits the replication and effectiveness of the second.
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Q58.Question:
The "IPV" (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) is also known as:
A. Sabin Vaccine
B. Salk Vaccine
C. BCG
D. Triple Antigen
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: ionale: Answer B is correct because Jonas Salk developed the Inactivated (Killed) Polio Vaccine. Albert Sabin developed the Oral (Live) Polio Vaccine (Option A).
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Q59.Question:
Which vitamin deficiency can reduce the effectiveness of the Measles vaccine and increase complication rates?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: ionale: Answer A is correct because Vitamin A is crucial for maintaining mucosal integrity and immune function. Deficiency worsens measles severity, which is why Vitamin A supplements are given with the vaccine.
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Q60.Question:
What is the color of the "20-gauge" needle hub commonly used for mixing vaccines/drawing diluents?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Pink
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: ionale: Answer C is correct because the standard color code for a 20G needle is Yellow. (Green is 21G, Blue is 23G, Pink is 18G). Mixing often requires a larger bore needle like 18G (Pink) or 20G (Yellow).
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Frequently Asked Questions (Immunization)

Q1: What is the ideal temperature for storing most vaccines in the Cold Chain? Ans: The ideal temperature range for storing most vaccines (like DPT, Tetanus, Pentavalent) at the PHC/Sub-center level is +2°C to +8°C. Polio (OPV) requires freezing (-20°C) for long-term storage.
Q2: What does the Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) indicate? Ans: VVM is a heat-sensitive label. If the inner square is lighter than the outer circle, the vaccine is safe to use. If the inner square matches or is darker than the outer circle, the vaccine must be discarded.
Q3: Which is the only Freeze-Dried (Powder) vaccine that comes with Normal Saline (NS) as a diluent? Ans: BCG Vaccine is reconstituted with Normal Saline. (Note: Measles vaccine is reconstituted with Distilled Water). Mixing them up can be fatal.

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