The Renal System is a high-yield topic for competitive exams like AIIMS NORCET, RRB Staff Nurse, and NCLEX-RN. Understanding fluid-electrolyte balance and kidney function is crucial for every nursing officer.
In this daily mock test, we cover critical topics like Acute & Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD), nursing management of patients on Hemodialysis & Peritoneal Dialysis, and Nephrolithiasis (Kidney Stones). We also discuss Urinary Tract Infections (UTI) and Glomerulonephritis. These solved MCQs with rationales will strengthen your preparation.
Renal Failure & Urinary Management
💡 Golden Points to Remember:
- Best Indicator of Renal Function: Serum Creatinine (Not BUN).
- AV Fistula Assessment: Feel the Thrill (Vibration) and hear the Bruit (Swishing sound).
- Oliguria Definition: Urine output < 400 ml/24 hours (or < 30 ml/hour).
- Hyperkalemia Management: Kayexalate (Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate) or Insulin + Dextrose.
- Nephrotic Syndrome: Characterized by massive Proteinuria, Hypoalbuminemia, and Edema.
Renal System Quiz
Q1.
Which of the following is the most common causative organism for uncomplicated Urinary Tract Infections (UTI)?
Which of the following is the most common causative organism for uncomplicated Urinary Tract Infections (UTI)?
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: E. coli accounts for approximately 80-85% of community-acquired UTIs due to fecal contamination. Option A is common in young women. Option B is common in catheter-associated infections.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q2.
A patient with acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse immediately assess for?
A patient with acute renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which ECG change should the nurse immediately assess for?
A. U waves
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. ST depression
D. Shortened QT interval
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe Hyperkalemia (>6.0 mEq/L) causes rapid repolarization, leading to tall, tented T waves, which can progress to ventricular fibrillation. Option A is seen in Hypokalemia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q3.
"Oliguria" is defined as a urine output of less than:
"Oliguria" is defined as a urine output of less than:
A. 100 ml/24 hours
B. 400 ml/24 hours
C. 800 ml/24 hours
D. 1000 ml/24 hours
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is defined as urine output <400 ml/day (or <0.5 ml/kg/hr). Anuria is <100 ml/day. Polyuria is >2500 ml/day.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q4.
Which type of kidney stone is radiolucent (invisible on X-ray)?
Which type of kidney stone is radiolucent (invisible on X-ray)?
A. Calcium Oxalate
B. Struvite
C. Uric Acid
D. Cystine
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Uric Acid stones are radiolucent and do not show up on standard KUB X-rays; they require CT scans or Ultrasound. Calcium stones (Option A) are radio-opaque.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q5.
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine formation is the:
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine formation is the:
A. Glomerulus
B. Nephron
C. Loop of Henle
D. Collecting Duct
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The Nephron (approx 1 million per kidney) is the structural and functional unit. The Glomerulus (Option A) is just the filtering part of the nephron.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q6.
A patient with Nephrotic Syndrome typically presents with:
A patient with Nephrotic Syndrome typically presents with:
A. Hematuria and hypertension
B. Massive proteinuria and edema
C. Dysuria and frequency
D. Polyuria and polydipsia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Nephrotic Syndrome is characterized by the classic triad of heavy proteinuria (>3.5g/day), hypoalbuminemia, and severe generalized edema (anasarca). Option A describes Nephritic Syndrome.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q7.
Which blood test is the most reliable indicator of renal function?
Which blood test is the most reliable indicator of renal function?
A. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Urinalysis
D. Serum Uric Acid
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Serum Creatinine is specific to kidney function because it is not significantly affected by diet or hydration, unlike BUN (Option A).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q8.
The condition where the urethral opening is located on the dorsal (upper) surface of the penis is called:
The condition where the urethral opening is located on the dorsal (upper) surface of the penis is called:
A. Hypospadias
B. Phimosis
C. Epispadias
D. Hydrocele
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Epispadias is the dorsal opening. Hypospadias (Option A) is the ventral opening. Phimosis (Option B) is tight foreskin.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q9.
Hemodialysis works on the principle of:
Hemodialysis works on the principle of:
A. Diffusion and Ultrafiltration
B. Active Transport
C. Osmosis only
D. Filtration only
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Dialysis removes solutes (waste) by Diffusion across a semi-permeable membrane and removes excess fluid by Ultrafiltration (pressure gradient).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q10.
"Specific Gravity" of urine normally ranges from:
"Specific Gravity" of urine normally ranges from:
A. 1.000 – 1.005
B. 1.005 – 1.030
C. 1.030 – 1.050
D. 1.050 – 1.100
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The normal specific gravity of urine is 1.005 to 1.030, reflecting the kidney's ability to concentrate urine. <1.005 is dilute; >1.030 is concentrated.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q11.
Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
A. ADH (Vasopressin)
B. Aldosterone
C. Renin
D. Erythropoietin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Aldosterone (from the adrenal cortex) promotes sodium retention and potassium excretion. ADH (Option A) promotes water reabsorption.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q12.
A patient with chronic renal failure is prescribed Epoetin Alfa (Epogen). The therapeutic effect is to:
A patient with chronic renal failure is prescribed Epoetin Alfa (Epogen). The therapeutic effect is to:
A. Lower blood pressure
B. Increase red blood cell production
C. Decrease serum potassium
D. Increase urine output
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys produce Erythropoietin. In failure, this production drops, causing anemia. Epoetin Alfa stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q13.
Which sign is positive when pain is elicited by percussing the costovertebral angle (CVA)?
Which sign is positive when pain is elicited by percussing the costovertebral angle (CVA)?
A. Murphy's Sign
B. McBurney's Sign
C. Rovsing's Sign
D. CVA Tenderness
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: D
Rationale: CVA Tenderness (Lloyd's sign) indicates inflammation of the kidney (Pyelonephritis) or renal calculi. Murphy's sign (Option A) is for cholecystitis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q14.
In peritoneal dialysis, the term "dwell time" refers to:
In peritoneal dialysis, the term "dwell time" refers to:
A. The time fluid is instilled
B. The time fluid remains in the peritoneal cavity
C. The time fluid is drained out
D. The total cycle time
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Dwell time is the duration the dialysate sits in the abdomen to allow for exchange of waste and fluids across the peritoneal membrane before being drained.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q15.
Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) is a malignant tumor of the:
Wilms Tumor (Nephroblastoma) is a malignant tumor of the:
A. Bladder
B. Kidney
C. Adrenal Gland
D. Ureter
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Wilms Tumor is the most common renal malignancy in children, typically presenting as an abdominal mass. Pre-op care includes avoiding abdominal palpation.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q16.
Which electrolyte imbalance is common in the diuretic phase of Acute Renal Failure?
Which electrolyte imbalance is common in the diuretic phase of Acute Renal Failure?
A. Hyperkalemia and Hypernatremia
B. Hypokalemia and Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia and Hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia and Hypernatremia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: During the diuretic phase, the kidneys dump large volumes of dilute urine (up to 5L/day), leading to the loss of electrolytes, causing Hypokalemia and Hyponatremia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q17.
"Stress Incontinence" is characterized by:
"Stress Incontinence" is characterized by:
A. Involuntary loss of urine with a strong urge to void
B. Involuntary loss of urine during coughing or sneezing
C. Continuous leakage of urine due to distended bladder
D. Inability to reach the toilet in time
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Stress Incontinence occurs when intra-abdominal pressure increases (sneezing, laughing) and the weakened pelvic floor muscles cannot keep the urethra closed. Option A is Urge Incontinence.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q18.
The normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in a healthy young adult is approximately:
The normal Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in a healthy young adult is approximately:
A. 60 ml/min
B. 90 ml/min
C. 125 ml/min
D. 180 ml/min
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: The standard normal GFR is 125 ml/min (or roughly 180 L/day). Values below 90 indicate stage 1 kidney damage; values below 15 indicate failure.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q19.
Presence of Red Blood Cell casts in urine is pathognomonic of:
Presence of Red Blood Cell casts in urine is pathognomonic of:
A. Acute Cystitis
B. Nephrolithiasis
C. Acute Glomerulonephritis
D. Pyelonephritis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: RBC Casts indicate damage to the glomerular basement membrane, specific to Glomerulonephritis. WBC casts (Option D) indicate Pyelonephritis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q20.
Which diet is typically recommended for a patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) not on dialysis?
Which diet is typically recommended for a patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) not on dialysis?
A. High Protein, High Sodium
B. Low Protein, Low Sodium, Low Potassium
C. High Potassium, Low Phosphorus
D. High Protein, Low Fluid
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: CKD patients must restrict Protein (to reduce urea), Sodium (for BP/edema), and Potassium (to prevent hyperkalemia). Once on dialysis, protein restrictions are relaxed.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q21.
Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating severe hyperkalemia to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating severe hyperkalemia to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Insulin with Dextrose
B. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate
C. Calcium Gluconate
D. Furosemide
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: While other options lower potassium, Calcium Gluconate is given first to protect the heart (membrane stabilization) from arrhythmias caused by high potassium.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q22.
"Kegel Exercises" are primarily prescribed for the management of:
"Kegel Exercises" are primarily prescribed for the management of:
A. Urinary Retention
B. Stress Incontinence
C. Renal Colic
D. Pyelonephritis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor muscles (pubococcygeus), helping to improve control in patients with Stress Incontinence.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q23.
The bladder muscle responsible for urination is called the:
The bladder muscle responsible for urination is called the:
A. Detrusor Muscle
B. Dartos Muscle
C. Cremaster Muscle
D. Psoas Muscle
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: The Detrusor Muscle is the smooth muscle layer of the bladder wall that contracts to expel urine. Option B and C are scrotal muscles.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q24.
After a Renal Biopsy, the patient should be positioned:
After a Renal Biopsy, the patient should be positioned:
A. Prone
B. Supine with a back roll/pillow under the biopsy site
C. High Fowler's
D. Lateral on the unaffected side
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The patient lies Supine on a pillow/towel roll (or on the affected side) for 4-6 hours to apply pressure to the biopsy site and prevent bleeding (hematoma).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q25.
An elevated Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) with a normal Serum Creatinine level usually suggests:
An elevated Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) with a normal Serum Creatinine level usually suggests:
A. Renal Failure
B. Dehydration
C. Liver Failure
D. Muscle wasting
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: BUN rises in dehydration (hemoconcentration), but Creatinine remains stable as it reflects kidney function mainly. A high BUN:Creatinine ratio (>20:1) indicates a pre-renal cause like Dehydration.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q26.
"Renal Threshold" for glucose is approximately:
"Renal Threshold" for glucose is approximately:
A. 100 mg/dL
B. 140 mg/dL
C. 180 mg/dL
D. 250 mg/dL
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: The kidneys reabsorb glucose up to a serum level of 180 mg/dL. Beyond this threshold, glucose spills into the urine (Glucosuria).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q27.
Which of the following describes "Anuria"?
Which of the following describes "Anuria"?
A. < 100 ml/day
B. < 400 ml/day
C. > 2000 ml/day
D. Painful urination
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Anuria is the suppression of urine formation, clinically defined as output less than 100 ml in 24 hours. Option B is Oliguria.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q28.
A patient with an AV Fistula for hemodialysis should be assessed for patency by:
A patient with an AV Fistula for hemodialysis should be assessed for patency by:
A. Measuring BP in that arm
B. Palpating a thrill and auscultating a bruit
C. Checking capillary refill
D. Observing for edema
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: A functioning AV fistula produces a vibration (Thrill) that can be felt and a rushing sound (Bruit) that can be heard. Absence indicates clotting.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q29.
Which electrolyte imbalance is responsible for the formation of "Calcium Oxalate" stones?
Which electrolyte imbalance is responsible for the formation of "Calcium Oxalate" stones?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hyponatremia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: High levels of calcium in the urine (Hypercalciuria, often from Hypercalcemia) combine with oxalates to form stones.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q30.
The presence of pus in the urine is termed:
The presence of pus in the urine is termed:
A. Hematuria
B. Pyuria
C. Proteinuria
D. Glycosuria
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Pyuria refers to the presence of pus (white blood cells) in the urine, indicative of infection (UTI). Hematuria is blood.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q31.
Which part of the nephron is the primary site for water reabsorption under the influence of ADH?
Which part of the nephron is the primary site for water reabsorption under the influence of ADH?
A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Distal Convoluted Tubule
D. Collecting Duct
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: D
Rationale: While reabsorption happens throughout, the Collecting Duct is the specific site where ADH acts to regulate the final concentration of urine by reabsorbing water.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q32.
"Intravenous Pyelography" (IVP) is contraindicated in patients with an allergy to:
"Intravenous Pyelography" (IVP) is contraindicated in patients with an allergy to:
A. Penicillin
B. Iodine/Shellfish
C. Latex
D. Eggs
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: IVP uses an iodine-based contrast dye. Patients with an allergy to Iodine or shellfish are at high risk for anaphylaxis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q33.
The normal pH range of urine is:
The normal pH range of urine is:
A. 3.5 – 4.5
B. 4.5 – 8.0
C. 7.35 – 7.45
D. 8.0 – 9.0
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Urine pH varies with diet and metabolism but typically ranges from 4.5 to 8.0, with an average around 6.0 (slightly acidic).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q34.
"Hydronephrosis" refers to:
"Hydronephrosis" refers to:
A. Infection of the kidney
B. Stone in the kidney
C. Dilation of the renal pelvis due to obstruction
D. Shrinkage of the kidney
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Hydronephrosis is the swelling/distension of the kidney due to a backup of urine caused by an obstruction (like a stone or stricture) downstream.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q35.
Which catheter is specifically designed for continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) after prostate surgery?
Which catheter is specifically designed for continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) after prostate surgery?
A. Straight catheter (Robinson)
B. 2-way Foley catheter
C. 3-way Foley catheter
D. Suprapubic catheter
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: A 3-way Foley catheter has three lumens: one for balloon inflation, one for urine drainage, and a third for inflow of irrigation fluid to wash out clots.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q36.
A patient with Chronic Renal Failure often develops bone demineralization (Renal Osteodystrophy) due to the kidney's inability to:
A patient with Chronic Renal Failure often develops bone demineralization (Renal Osteodystrophy) due to the kidney's inability to:
A. Excrete Calcium
B. Activate Vitamin D
C. Reabsorb Phosphorus
D. Secrete Renin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys convert Vitamin D into its active form (Calcitriol). In failure, this stops, leading to poor calcium absorption and bone weakness.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q37.
"Enuresis" refers to:
"Enuresis" refers to:
A. Painful urination
B. Bedwetting after the age of control
C. Urinary retention
D. Blood in urine
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Enuresis is involuntary urination, typically at night (nocturnal), in children old enough to have bladder control (>5 years).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q38.
The specific gravity of urine is fixed at 1.010 in which condition?
The specific gravity of urine is fixed at 1.010 in which condition?
A. Diabetes Insipidus
B. End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)
C. Dehydration
D. Heart Failure
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: In ESRD, the kidneys lose the ability to concentrate or dilute urine, resulting in a "Fixed Specific Gravity" (Isosthenuria) similar to plasma (1.010).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q39.
Which of the following foods should be restricted in a patient with Uric Acid stones?
Which of the following foods should be restricted in a patient with Uric Acid stones?
A. Dairy products
B. Organ meats and sardines (Purines)
C. Citrus fruits
D. Leafy vegetables
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Uric acid is a byproduct of Purine metabolism. Patients should avoid high-purine foods like organ meats (liver), sardines, and gravy.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q40.
The classic triad of symptoms for "Renal Cell Carcinoma" includes:
The classic triad of symptoms for "Renal Cell Carcinoma" includes:
A. Hematuria, Flank pain, Palpable mass
B. Dysuria, Frequency, Urgency
C. Proteinuria, Edema, Hypertension
D. Fever, Chills, Pyuria
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: The classic triad is Gross Hematuria, Flank Pain, and a Palpable abdominal mass, though this full triad is seen in only a minority of late-stage cases.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q41.
Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN) in children is most commonly preceded by an infection with:
Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN) in children is most commonly preceded by an infection with:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococcus
C. E. coli
D. Pseudomonas
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: AGN typically develops 1-2 weeks after a Streptococcal throat or skin infection (impetigo), mediated by immune complex deposition in the glomeruli.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q42.
A patient with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) typically complains of:
A patient with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) typically complains of:
A. Polyuria
B. Urinary Hesitancy and weak stream
C. Hematuria
D. Stress Incontinence
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The enlarged prostate compresses the urethra, causing Hesitancy (difficulty starting the stream), a weak stream, and dribbling. Option A describes Diabetes.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q43.
The triangular area at the base of the bladder, bounded by the two ureteral openings and the internal urethral orifice, is called the:
The triangular area at the base of the bladder, bounded by the two ureteral openings and the internal urethral orifice, is called the:
A. Fundus
B. Trigone
C. Apex
D. Detrusor
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The Trigone is a smooth, triangular region at the bladder base, distinct because it lacks rugae and is a common site for infection.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q44.
To collect a sterile urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling Foley catheter, the nurse should:
To collect a sterile urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling Foley catheter, the nurse should:
A. Disconnect the catheter from the drainage bag
B. Aspirate urine from the collection bag
C. Clamp the tubing and aspirate from the sampling port
D. Insert a new catheter
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must clamp the tubing (to collect fresh urine), clean the sampling port, and aspirate with a sterile syringe. Urine from the bag (Option B) is not sterile.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q45.
"Dysuria" refers to:
"Dysuria" refers to:
A. Frequent urination
B. Painful or difficult urination
C. Involuntary urination
D. Nighttime urination
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Dysuria is the medical term for burning, discomfort, or pain during urination, a hallmark symptom of UTI.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q46.
After a Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP), the drainage fluid in the CBI bag should ideally be:
After a Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP), the drainage fluid in the CBI bag should ideally be:
A. Bright red
B. Light pink or colorless
C. Dark brown
D. Cloudy with sediment
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The goal of Continuous Bladder Irrigation (CBI) is to keep the urine Light Pink to clear. Bright red (Option A) indicates active bleeding.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q47.
The length of the female urethra is approximately:
The length of the female urethra is approximately:
A. 1.5 inches (4 cm)
B. 4 inches (10 cm)
C. 8 inches (20 cm)
D. 10 inches (25 cm)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: The short female urethra (~4 cm) is a key anatomical reason why women are more prone to UTIs than men (whose urethra is ~20 cm).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q48.
Which phase of Acute Renal Failure signals the beginning of recovery?
Which phase of Acute Renal Failure signals the beginning of recovery?
A. Oliguric Phase
B. Diuretic Phase
C. Recovery Phase
D. Initiation Phase
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The onset of the Diuretic Phase (sudden increase in urine output) indicates that the nephrons are starting to recover filtration ability, though concentration ability is still impaired.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q49.
"Urgency" is defined as:
"Urgency" is defined as:
A. The need to void immediately
B. Waking up at night to void
C. Increased frequency of voiding
D. Painful voiding
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Urgency is the sudden, compelling desire to pass urine that is difficult to defer. It differs from Frequency (Option C).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q50.
Which of the following is an invasive procedure used to visualize the bladder and urethra?
Which of the following is an invasive procedure used to visualize the bladder and urethra?
A. KUB X-ray
B. Cystoscopy
C. IVP
D. Renal Ultrasound
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Cystoscopy involves inserting a lighted scope (cystoscope) through the urethra to directly visualize the bladder lining.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q51.
A patient with a Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L should be encouraged to eat:
A patient with a Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L should be encouraged to eat:
A. Apples and Cheese
B. Bananas and Oranges
C. Bread and Rice
D. Eggs and Fish
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas, oranges, potatoes, and spinach are high-potassium foods appropriate for treating Hypokalemia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q52.
The presence of "Bence Jones Proteins" in urine is diagnostic for:
The presence of "Bence Jones Proteins" in urine is diagnostic for:
A. Nephrotic Syndrome
B. Multiple Myeloma
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Lupus Nephritis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Bence Jones Proteins are light chain immunoglobulins found in the urine of patients with Multiple Myeloma, causing renal damage.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q53.
Which part of the kidney contains the Glomeruli and Bowman's capsules?
Which part of the kidney contains the Glomeruli and Bowman's capsules?
A. Renal Medulla
B. Renal Cortex
C. Renal Pelvis
D. Calyx
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The Renal Cortex (outer layer) contains all the Glomeruli. The Medulla contains the Loops of Henle and Collecting Ducts (Pyramids).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q54.
"Nocturia" is a common symptom of:
"Nocturia" is a common symptom of:
A. Kidney Stones
B. Heart Failure and BPH
C. Dehydration
D. Acute Cystitis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Nocturia (waking up >1 time at night to void) is common in Heart Failure (fluid reabsorption when supine) and BPH (incomplete emptying).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q55.
The specific gravity of water is:
The specific gravity of water is:
A. 1.000
B. 1.010
C. 1.025
D. 1.030
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Pure water has a specific gravity of 1.000. Urine is always >1.000 due to dissolved solutes.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q56.
"Lithotripsy" (ESWL) is a procedure used for:
"Lithotripsy" (ESWL) is a procedure used for:
A. Removing a bladder tumor
B. Crushing renal stones using shock waves
C. Repairing a ureteral stricture
D. Visualizing the kidney
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL) uses non-invasive shock waves to break kidney stones into fragments small enough to pass.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q57.
Which vitamin activation occurs in the kidney?
Which vitamin activation occurs in the kidney?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: The final hydroxylation step to activate Vitamin D (into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) takes place in the kidneys.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q58.
A "Suprapubic Catheter" is inserted into the bladder through:
A "Suprapubic Catheter" is inserted into the bladder through:
A. The urethra
B. An incision in the abdominal wall
C. The ureter
D. The perineum
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: A suprapubic catheter bypasses the urethra and is inserted surgically through the lower abdominal wall directly into the bladder.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q59.
The normal daily urine output for a healthy adult is approximately:
The normal daily urine output for a healthy adult is approximately:
A. 500 – 800 ml
B. 1500 – 2000 ml
C. 3000 – 4000 ml
D. 100 – 400 ml
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Average daily output is roughly 1500 ml (1.5 Liters), depending on intake. <400 is Oliguria.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q60.
"Uremia" refers to:
"Uremia" refers to:
A. Blood in urine
B. Excess urea and nitrogenous waste in the blood
C. Infection of the ureter
D. Stones in the ureter
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Uremia is the clinical syndrome associated with fluid, electrolyte, and hormone imbalances in renal failure, specifically high urea/wastes in blood.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q61.
Which of the following is the earliest clinical sign of "Peritonitis" in a patient undergoing Peritoneal Dialysis?
Which of the following is the earliest clinical sign of "Peritonitis" in a patient undergoing Peritoneal Dialysis?
A. Fever
B. Cloudy effluent (dialysate)
C. Abdominal pain
D. Diarrhea
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: While fever and pain occur later, the very first sign a nurse or patient observes is the dialysate turning cloudy or opaque due to the presence of WBCs and bacteria.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q62.
Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease are advised to take "Phosphate Binders" (e.g., Calcium Acetate) at what time?
Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease are advised to take "Phosphate Binders" (e.g., Calcium Acetate) at what time?
A. 1 hour before meals
B. With meals
C. 2 hours after meals
D. At bedtime
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Phosphate binders work by binding to the phosphorus present in food within the GI tract. Therefore, they must be taken with meals to be effective.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q63.
The "AV Fistula" is created by surgically connecting:
The "AV Fistula" is created by surgically connecting:
A. An artery and a vein
B. Two arteries
C. Two veins
D. An artery and a nerve
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: An Arteriovenous (AV) Fistula connects an artery (high pressure) directly to a vein (low pressure), causing the vein to dilate and thicken, making it suitable for repeated needle insertion for dialysis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q64.
Which fruit is generally restricted in the diet of a patient with End-Stage Renal Disease due to its high potassium content?
Which fruit is generally restricted in the diet of a patient with End-Stage Renal Disease due to its high potassium content?
A. Apple
B. Banana
C. Grapes
D. Cranberries
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Bananas (along with oranges, melons, and dried fruits) are very high in potassium. Apples, grapes, and berries are lower potassium alternatives preferred for renal patients.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q65.
"Aluminum Toxicity" in dialysis patients can lead to:
"Aluminum Toxicity" in dialysis patients can lead to:
A. Liver Failure
B. Dialysis Encephalopathy (Dementia)
C. Pulmonary Fibrosis
D. Retinopathy
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Accumulation of aluminum (from water or phosphate binders) deposits in the brain, causing a specific neurological syndrome known as Dialysis Encephalopathy or Dialysis Dementia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q66.
Which phase of Acute Kidney Injury is characterized by a daily urine output of less than 400 ml?
Which phase of Acute Kidney Injury is characterized by a daily urine output of less than 400 ml?
A. Recovery Phase
B. Diuretic Phase
C. Oliguric Phase
D. Onset Phase
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: The Oliguric Phase typically lasts 1-2 weeks and is defined by urine output dropping below 400 ml/day, leading to fluid overload and azotemia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q67.
A patient on hemodialysis complains of muscle cramps in the legs during the procedure. The immediate nursing intervention is to:
A patient on hemodialysis complains of muscle cramps in the legs during the procedure. The immediate nursing intervention is to:
A. Increase the ultrafiltration rate
B. Administer a bolus of Normal Saline
C. Administer Morphine
D. Stop the dialysis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Cramps are often caused by rapid fluid removal (hypotension/hypovolemia). Giving a small bolus of Normal Saline helps restore volume and relieve cramps. Increasing ultrafiltration (Option A) worsens it.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q68.
"Renal Osteodystrophy" is caused by the kidney's failure to activate Vitamin D and excrete:
"Renal Osteodystrophy" is caused by the kidney's failure to activate Vitamin D and excrete:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: The retention of Phosphorus leads to hypocalcemia (inverse relationship), which stimulates the parathyroid gland to pull calcium from bones, causing bone disease.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q69.
Which laboratory value typically decreases in a patient with Chronic Renal Failure?
Which laboratory value typically decreases in a patient with Chronic Renal Failure?
A. Serum Creatinine
B. Serum Potassium
C. Hemoglobin/Hematocrit
D. Blood Urea Nitrogen
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Due to lack of Erythropoietin production, anemia develops, lowering Hemoglobin and Hematocrit. Creatinine, Potassium, and BUN (Options A, B, D) all increase.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q70.
The accumulation of uremic toxins affecting the peripheral nerves causes:
The accumulation of uremic toxins affecting the peripheral nerves causes:
A. Peripheral Neuropathy (Restless Leg Syndrome)
B. Stroke
C. Meningitis
D. Sciatica
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Peripheral Neuropathy (burning feet, restless legs) is a common complication of uremia due to nerve damage from toxins.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q71.
Which of the following is a "Prerenal" cause of Acute Kidney Injury?
Which of the following is a "Prerenal" cause of Acute Kidney Injury?
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Severe Dehydration/Shock
C. BPH
D. Glomerulonephritis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Prerenal causes involve hypoperfusion (low blood flow) to the kidneys, such as dehydration, shock, or heart failure. Stones and BPH are Postrenal. Glomerulonephritis is Intrarenal.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q72.
"Kayexalate" is used to treat which electrolyte imbalance seen in renal failure?
"Kayexalate" is used to treat which electrolyte imbalance seen in renal failure?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Kayexalate (Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate) binds Potassium in the gut in exchange for Sodium, removing excess potassium from the body.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q73.
What is the primary purpose of warming the dialysate before instilling it during Peritoneal Dialysis?
What is the primary purpose of warming the dialysate before instilling it during Peritoneal Dialysis?
A. To kill bacteria
B. To promote vasodilation and urea removal
C. To prevent abdominal pain/cramping
D. To increase ultrafiltration
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Warming the dialysate promotes vasodilation of the peritoneal vessels, which increases urea clearance. Additionally, it prevents abdominal cramping/pain and hypothermia (comfort).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q74.
Patients with an AV Fistula are instructed to avoid which of the following in the affected arm?
Patients with an AV Fistula are instructed to avoid which of the following in the affected arm?
A. Sleeping on that side
B. Wearing a watch or tight clothes
C. Measuring Blood Pressure
D. All of the above
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: D
Rationale: Any constriction (BP cuff, tight clothes, sleeping on the arm) can compromise blood flow and cause the fistula to clot (thrombosis).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q75.
"Kussmaul Respirations" in a patient with Acute Kidney Injury indicate the development of:
"Kussmaul Respirations" in a patient with Acute Kidney Injury indicate the development of:
A. Metabolic Acidosis
B. Metabolic Alkalosis
C. Respiratory Acidosis
D. Respiratory Alkalosis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: The failing kidneys cannot excrete acid, leading to Metabolic Acidosis. The lungs compensate by deep, rapid breathing (Kussmaul) to blow off CO2.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q76.
Which organism is the most common cause of Peritonitis in CAPD patients?
Which organism is the most common cause of Peritonitis in CAPD patients?
A. E. coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus / epidermidis
C. Pseudomonas
D. Candida
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Skin flora (Staphylococcus epidermidis or aureus) entering via the catheter site is the most common cause of peritonitis in PD patients.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q77.
The normal ratio of BUN to Serum Creatinine is approximately:
The normal ratio of BUN to Serum Creatinine is approximately:
A. 1:1
B. 10:1 to 20:1
C. 50:1
D. 5:1
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: The normal BUN:Creatinine ratio is between 10:1 and 20:1. An increased ratio suggests prerenal causes (dehydration).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q78.
"Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis" (CAPD) typically involves how many exchanges per day?
"Continuous Ambulatory Peritoneal Dialysis" (CAPD) typically involves how many exchanges per day?
A. 1 exchange
B. 4 exchanges (cycles)
C. 8 exchanges
D. Continuous 24-hour flow
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: A standard CAPD regimen involves 4 exchanges per day (morning, noon, evening, and bedtime), allowing the patient to go about daily activities.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q79.
Erythropoietin injections are usually administered via which route for dialysis patients?
Erythropoietin injections are usually administered via which route for dialysis patients?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous or IV
C. Oral
D. Intradermal
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a protein and cannot be given orally. It is given IV during hemodialysis or Subcutaneously (often preferred for longer action).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q80.
"Hiccups" (Singultus) in a patient with renal failure may be a symptom of:
"Hiccups" (Singultus) in a patient with renal failure may be a symptom of:
A. Improved renal function
B. Uremia / Toxin accumulation
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent hiccups are a neurological manifestation of Uremia (high levels of urea and toxins affecting the phrenic nerve).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
🔗 Read Also: More Medical Surgical Nursing Questions (Respiratory & Cardio)
Frequently Asked Questions (Renal System)
Q1: What is the priority nursing action for a patient with Kidney Stones (Renal Colic)?
Ans: The priority is Pain Management (severe colic pain). After pain relief, straining urine to catch stones and increasing fluid intake are important.
Q2: What is the specific diet recommended for Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?
Ans: A Low Protein, Low Sodium, and Low Potassium diet is recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys and prevent electrolyte imbalances.
Q3: Which hormone deficiency causes Anemia in renal failure patients?
Ans: Erythropoietin. Kidneys produce this hormone to stimulate RBC production. In renal failure, its deficiency leads to anemia.
Question for You:
Which color of urine is classically seen in a patient with Acute Glomerulonephritis?
A. Straw colored
B. Smoky or Cola-colored
C. Bright Red
D. Orange
👉 Comment your answer below!
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