Respiratory Nursing: Airway & Lungs Management Quiz
The Respiratory System is a vital component of Medical-Surgical Nursing. In today's Daily Mock Test, we cover the anatomy of the airway and management of common lung disorders.
This quiz includes high-yield questions on Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), differentiating between Emphysema (Pink Puffer) and Chronic Bronchitis (Blue Bloater). We also focus on Bronchial Asthma management, Pneumonia, Tuberculosis (DOTS Therapy), and the interpretation of Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values. Master these respiratory concepts for AIIMS NORCET and NCLEX-RN success.
Respiratory System: COPD & Asthma
Q1.Question: Which structure is considered the functional unit of the lung where gas exchange occurs?
A. Bronchioles
B. Alveoli
C. Trachea
D. Pleura
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because alveoli are the tiny air sacs at the end of the respiratory tree where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place with the capillaries. Option A is incorrect because bronchioles are conducting airways. Option C is the windpipe that conducts air. Option D is the lining membrane surrounding the lungs.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q2.Question: The nurse is caring for a client with COPD. Which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate to deliver a precise, low concentration of oxygen?
A. Nasal Cannula
B. Simple Face Mask
C. Venturi Mask
D. Non-rebreather Mask
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Venturi mask is designed to deliver a precise, fixed concentration of oxygen (FiO2), which is critical in COPD patients to avoid suppressing their hypoxic drive. Option A and B deliver variable concentrations. Option D delivers high concentrations of oxygen.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q3.Question: The left lung consists of how many lobes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the left lung has two lobes (Superior and Inferior) to accommodate the heart (cardiac notch). Option C is incorrect because the right lung has three lobes (Superior, Middle, Inferior).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q4.Question: When performing tracheal suctioning, the nurse should apply suction for no longer than:
A. 5 seconds
B. 10-15 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 60 seconds
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because prolonged suctioning (>15 seconds) causes hypoxia, mucosal trauma, and cardiac arrhythmias due to vagal stimulation. Option C and D are dangerous durations that can cause serious complications.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q5.Question: Which breath sound is classically associated with Asthma?
A. Crackles
B. Stridor
C. Wheezing
D. Pleural Friction Rub
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Wheezing is a high-pitched musical sound produced by air passing through narrowed/constricted airways (bronchospasm), typical of asthma. Option A indicates fluid in the alveoli. Option B indicates upper airway obstruction.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q6.Question: A patient is prescribed Rifampicin for Tuberculosis. The nurse should warn the patient about which common, harmless side effect?
A. Orange-red discoloration of body fluids
B. Peripheral Neuropathy
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hyperuricemia
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Rifampicin metabolizes into a red-orange pigment that colors urine, sweat, and tears. Option B is caused by Isoniazid. Option C is caused by Streptomycin. Option D is associated with Pyrazinamide.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q7.Question: The volume of air inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath is known as:
A. Vital Capacity
B. Tidal Volume
C. Residual Volume
D. Total Lung Capacity
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Tidal Volume (TV) is the amount of air moved in or out of the lungs during normal quiet breathing (approximately 500 ml). Option A is the maximum air exhaled after maximum inhalation. Option C is air remaining after maximal exhalation. Option D includes all lung volumes.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q8.Question: Which position is most appropriate for a patient immediately after a Tonsillectomy to prevent aspiration?
A. High Fowler's
B. Supine
C. Side-lying or Prone
D. Trendelenburg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because placing the patient in a side-lying or prone position allows blood and drainage to flow out of the mouth, preventing aspiration into the airway. Option A and B risk aspiration of blood. Option D would increase blood flow to the surgical site.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q9.Question: Which of the following is the definitive diagnostic test for Pulmonary Tuberculosis?
A. Chest X-Ray
B. Mantoux Test
C. Sputum Culture
D. ESR
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from sputum culture is the gold standard for confirmation. Option B is a screening test for exposure. Option A suggests but does not confirm the specific organism. Option D is a non-specific inflammatory marker.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q10.Question: "Rusty Sputum" is a characteristic clinical finding in:
A. Pulmonary Edema
B. Pneumococcal Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Bronchitis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Pneumococcal pneumonia causes alveolar bleeding, and the mixed blood and purulent mucus create a "rusty" colored sputum. Option A produces pink frothy sputum. Option C typically produces blood-streaked or hemoptysis. Option D produces mucoid or purulent sputum.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q11.Question: The primary respiratory center controlling the rate and depth of breathing is located in the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla Oblongata
C. Hypothalamus
D. Thalamus
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Medulla Oblongata (brainstem) contains the chemoreceptors that detect CO2 levels and regulate the respiratory drive. The Pons also assists in rhythm control. Option A controls balance and coordination. Option C regulates temperature and hormones. Option D relays sensory information.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q12.Question: In a water-seal chest drainage system, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates:
A. Normal functioning
B. An air leak in the system
C. The lung has re-expanded
D. Kinking of the tube
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber suggests air is entering the system from a leak (patient or tubing). Intermittent bubbling (tidaling) is normal with respiration. Option A would show tidaling, not continuous bubbling. Option C would show absence of bubbling. Option D would prevent drainage.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q13.Question: Which deficiency leads to Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)?
A. Oxygen
B. Surfactant
C. Glucose
D. Hemoglobin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Surfactant (lipoprotein) reduces surface tension in alveoli, preventing collapse. Premature infants often lack sufficient surfactant, leading to IRDS (also called Hyaline Membrane Disease).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q14.Question: The nurse interprets a positive Mantoux test (Tuberculin Skin Test) as an induration of:
A. > 5 mm in HIV patients
B. > 10 mm in healthy individuals
C. > 15 mm in all patients
D. Erythema (Redness) only
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct (generally >10mm is positive for standard risk, >5mm for high risk/HIV, >15mm for low risk). The key is measuring Induration (hardness), not Erythema (Redness). Option A is correct for immunocompromised patients but not the general standard. Option D is incorrect as erythema alone is not diagnostic.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q15.Question: Which nursing intervention is most effective to prevent atelectasis in a post-operative patient?
A. Administering antibiotics
B. Encouraging use of Incentive Spirometry
C. Bed rest
D. Administering oxygen
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Incentive Spirometry encourages deep breathing and alveolar expansion, preventing collapse (atelectasis) common after anesthesia/surgery. Option A treats infection, not prevention of collapse. Option C promotes atelectasis. Option D treats hypoxia but doesn't prevent collapse.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q16.Question: "Barrel Chest" (increased anteroposterior diameter) is a classic sign of:
A. Pneumonia
B. Emphysema (COPD)
C. Asthma
D. Tuberculosis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs in Emphysema cause the rib cage to expand permanently, leading to a 1:1 AP-to-Transverse diameter ratio (normal is 1:2).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q17.Question: Which result of Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) analysis indicates Respiratory Acidosis?
A. pH 7.30, PCO2 50 mmHg
B. pH 7.50, PCO2 30 mmHg
C. pH 7.30, HCO3 20 mEq/L
D. pH 7.45, PCO2 40 mmHg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because low pH (<7.35) indicates acidosis, and high PCO2 (>45 mmHg) indicates a respiratory cause (retention of acid/CO2). Option B is Respiratory Alkalosis. Option C is Metabolic Acidosis. Option D represents normal values.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q18.Question: The bifurcation of the trachea into the right and left main bronchi occurs at the level of:
A. C6 vertebra
B. T4-T5 vertebra (Carina)
C. T10 vertebra
D. L1 vertebra
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Trachea divides at the Carina, which corresponds to the level of the T4-T5 thoracic vertebrae (Angle of Louis/Sternal angle). Option A is the level where the larynx begins.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q19.Question: A patient with a Pulmonary Embolism (PE) typically presents with the sudden onset of:
A. Fever and chills
B. Dyspnea and Chest Pain
C. Bradypnea and hypotension
D. Productive cough
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the blockage of pulmonary arteries causes sudden, unexplained shortness of breath (dyspnea), sharp pleuritic chest pain, and hypoxia. Tachypnea (not bradypnea) is typically present.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q20.Question: What is the primary muscle of respiration?
A. Intercostal muscles
B. Diaphragm
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Pectoralis minor
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Diaphragm is the major muscle responsible for breathing; its contraction increases the thoracic cavity volume, allowing inspiration. Option A assists in breathing. Options C and D are accessory muscles used during labored breathing.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q21.Question: Which drug is classified as a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA), commonly used as a rescue inhaler for acute asthma attacks?
A. Salmeterol
B. Albuterol (Salbutamol)
C. Theophylline
D. Fluticasone
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Albuterol is a rapid-onset bronchodilator used to relieve sudden bronchospasm. Option A (Salmeterol) is long-acting (LABA). Option C is a methylxanthine bronchodilator. Option D is a corticosteroid for maintenance therapy.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q22.Question: The normal pH of arterial blood is strictly maintained between:
A. 7.25 to 7.35
B. 7.35 to 7.45
C. 7.45 to 7.55
D. 7.55 to 7.65
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the body functions optimally within this narrow, slightly alkaline range. Values <7.35 denote acidosis, and >7.45 denote alkalosis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q23.Question: Which of the following conditions is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural Effusion
C. Atelectasis
D. Empyema
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Pleural Effusion is the buildup of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura. Pneumothorax (Option A) is air accumulation. Atelectasis (Option C) is lung collapse. Empyema (Option D) is specifically pus accumulation.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q24.Question: In the DOTS strategy for Tuberculosis, the "Intensive Phase" typically lasts for:
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 4 months
D. 6 months
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the standard DOTS regimen (Category I) starts with an Intensive Phase of 2 months (IP) using 4 drugs (HRZE), followed by a Continuation Phase (CP) of 4 months with 2 drugs.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q25.Question: The "Adam's Apple" is formed by the prominence of which cartilage?
A. Cricoid Cartilage
B. Thyroid Cartilage
C. Epiglottis
D. Arytenoid Cartilage
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Thyroid Cartilage is the largest laryngeal cartilage, and its laryngeal prominence creates the Adam's Apple, more visible in males due to testosterone effects during puberty.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q26.Question: Cheyne-Stokes respiration is best described as:
A. Deep, rapid breathing associated with DKA
B. Regular, slow, shallow breathing
C. Periods of deep breathing alternating with periods of apnea
D. Irregular, gasping breaths
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Cheyne-Stokes is a rhythmic cycle of deepening respirations followed by gradual shallowing and a period of apnea, often seen in heart failure or brain damage. Option A describes Kussmaul respiration. Option D describes agonal breathing.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q27.Question: Which diagnostic procedure involves inserting a needle into the pleural space to remove fluid or air?
A. Bronchoscopy
B. Thoracentesis
C. Thoracotomy
D. Lobectomy
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Thoracentesis (pleural tap) is the invasive procedure to aspirate fluid/air for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes. Option A is visualization of airways. Option C is a surgical opening of the chest. Option D is surgical removal of a lung lobe.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q28.Question: The exchange of gases (O2 and CO2) between the blood and tissues is known as:
A. External Respiration
B. Internal Respiration
C. Pulmonary Ventilation
D. Cellular Respiration
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Internal Respiration occurs at the systemic capillary-tissue level. External Respiration (Option A) occurs at the alveolar-capillary level in the lungs. Option C is the mechanical process of breathing. Option D occurs within cells.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q29.Question: Which organism is the most common cause of Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Mycoplasma
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Streptococcus pneumoniae (Pneumococcus) is the leading bacterial cause of CAP in adults. Option A is more common in post-influenza pneumonia. Option C is common in hospital-acquired/ventilator-associated cases. Option D causes atypical pneumonia.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q30.Question: Hypoxia is defined as:
A. Low oxygen in the blood
B. Low oxygen in the tissues
C. High carbon dioxide in the blood
D. Low hemoglobin
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Hypoxia specifically refers to inadequate oxygen supply at the tissue/cellular level. Hypoxemia (Option A) is low oxygen in the arterial blood. Hypercapnia (Option C) is elevated CO2. Anemia (Option D) is low hemoglobin.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q31.Question: A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber. This indicates:
A. An air leak
B. Normal functioning
C. Tube obstruction
D. Lung re-expansion
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Gentle, continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber (not the water seal chamber) indicates the suction is working correctly at the prescribed level. Vigorous bubbling just evaporates water faster and may need adjustment.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q32.Question: The nurse teaches a COPD patient "Pursed-Lip Breathing" primarily to:
A. Increase oxygen intake
B. Prolong exhalation and prevent airway collapse
C. Strengthen the diaphragm
D. Clear secretions
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because pursed-lip breathing creates positive back-pressure in the airways, keeping them open longer during exhalation and allowing trapped air (CO2) to escape, reducing air trapping.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q33.Question: Pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of:
A. Pulmonary Tuberculosis
B. Acute Pulmonary Edema
C. Lung Abscess
D. Bronchiectasis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because in Pulmonary Edema (often due to Left Heart Failure), fluid and red blood cells leak into alveoli, mixing with air to form pink (blood-tinged) frothy sputum. Option A produces blood-streaked sputum. Option C produces foul-smelling purulent sputum.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q34.Question: Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs can cause optic neuritis (color blindness/vision loss)?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Ethambutol is associated with ocular toxicity (E for Eye), including optic neuritis and red-green color blindness. Patients need baseline and periodic visual acuity and color vision monitoring.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q35.Question: The normal Tidal Volume in a healthy adult is approximately:
A. 150 ml
B. 350 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 1000 ml
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the standard tidal volume (air moved per breath at rest) is about 500 ml, or roughly 6-8 ml/kg of ideal body weight. Option A represents dead space volume.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q36.Question: In which condition is the "Tripod Position" (leaning forward with hands on knees) commonly adopted by patients?
A. Myocardial Infarction
B. Severe COPD/Respiratory Distress
C. Stroke
D. Abdominal Pain
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Tripod position fixes the shoulder girdle, allowing accessory muscles of respiration (sternocleidomastoid, scalenes) to function more effectively to aid breathing during respiratory distress.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q37.Question: Which nerve stimulates the diaphragm to contract?
A. Vagus Nerve
B. Phrenic Nerve
C. Intercostal Nerve
D. Sciatic Nerve
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Phrenic Nerve (originating from C3-C5) provides the exclusive motor control for the diaphragm. Remember: "C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive."
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q38.Question: "Clubbing" of the fingers is a long-term sign of:
A. Chronic Hypoxia
B. Acute Infection
C. Iron Deficiency
D. Vitamin D Deficiency
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because chronic low oxygen levels (as in COPD, cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, or congenital heart disease) cause vasodilation and connective tissue hypertrophy in the nail beds, leading to clubbing over time.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q39.Question: The correct technique for using a Metered Dose Inhaler (MDI) without a spacer includes holding the breath for how long after inhalation?
A. 2 seconds
B. 5 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 30 seconds
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because holding the breath for 10 seconds (or as long as comfortable) allows the medication particles to settle and deposit in the lungs/alveoli rather than being exhaled immediately.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q40.Question: Which laryngeal cartilage completely forms a ring around the trachea?
A. Thyroid
B. Cricoid
C. Arytenoid
D. Epiglottis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Cricoid Cartilage is the only complete cartilaginous ring in the respiratory tract (signet ring shape). The tracheal rings are C-shaped (incomplete posteriorly to allow esophageal expansion).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q41.Question: A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Pneumothorax. The nurse anticipates the chest tube insertion will be placed in the:
A. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line
B. 5th intercostal space, mid-axillary line
C. 8th intercostal space, posterior line
D. Below the diaphragm
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because air rises; therefore, to drain air (Pneumothorax), the tube is classically placed high in the 2nd ICS, mid-clavicular line. To drain fluid (Hemothorax/Effusion), it is placed lower (5th-6th ICS). Note: Modern practice often uses the "Triangle of Safety" for both.
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Q42.Question: Which of the following values represents a normal Oxygen Saturation (SpO2) level?
A. 85% - 90%
B. 90% - 94%
C. 95% - 100%
D. 75% - 85%
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because a healthy individual maintains an SpO2 of 95-100% on room air. Levels below 90% typically indicate hypoxemia requiring intervention. Option A may be acceptable target for some COPD patients.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q43.Question: The nurse is assessing a patient with a chest tube. If the tube accidentally disconnects from the drainage system, the immediate action is to:
A. Clamp the chest tube
B. Immerse the end of the tube in sterile water
C. Call the physician
D. Remove the tube
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because immersing the distal end in sterile water (or saline) creates a temporary water seal, preventing air from entering the pleural space while the system is replaced. Clamping (Option A) risks tension pneumothorax if there's an ongoing air leak.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q44.Question: The right lung has how many bronchopulmonary segments?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Right lung has 10 segments (3 in Superior lobe, 2 in Middle lobe, 5 in Inferior lobe). The Left lung typically has 8-10 segments depending on anatomical variation and fusion.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q45.Question: Which respiratory volume cannot be measured by simple Spirometry?
A. Tidal Volume
B. Vital Capacity
C. Residual Volume
D. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because Residual Volume is the air remaining in lungs after maximal exhalation. Since it cannot be exhaled, a simple spirometer cannot measure it (requires Helium dilution or Body Plethysmography).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q46.Question: Hyperventilation leads to which acid-base imbalance?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because rapid, deep breathing blows off excessive CO2 (carbonic acid), leading to a drop in PaCO2 (hypocapnia) and a rise in pH (>7.45), causing Respiratory Alkalosis.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q47.Question: The substance "Surfactant" is produced by which type of cells in the alveoli?
A. Type I Pneumocytes
B. Type II Pneumocytes
C. Alveolar Macrophages
D. Goblet Cells
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Type II Pneumocytes (Type II alveolar cells) secrete surfactant to lower surface tension and prevent alveolar collapse. Type I cells are thin cells for gas exchange. Macrophages provide defense. Goblet cells produce mucus in airways.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q48.Question: Which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism?
A. D-Dimer
B. CT Pulmonary Angiography (CTPA)
C. Chest X-ray
D. V/Q Scan
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because CTPA visualizes the pulmonary arteries and clots directly with high sensitivity and specificity. D-Dimer (Option A) is sensitive but not specific (used to rule out PE). V/Q scan (Option D) is an alternative if CT is contraindicated.
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Q49.Question: A patient on a mechanical ventilator is fighting the machine. The high-pressure alarm sounds. This is most likely caused by:
A. Disconnection of the tubing
B. Leak in the cuff
C. Secretions or kinking of the tube
D. Patient stops breathing
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because high-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance to airflow (e.g., secretions, biting tube, kinking, bronchospasm, pneumothorax). Disconnection or cuff leak causes a Low-pressure alarm.
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Q50.Question: "Kussmaul breathing" is a deep, rapid breathing pattern typically associated with:
A. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
B. Opioid overdose
C. COPD
D. Sleep Apnea
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because in DKA, the body attempts to blow off CO2 to compensate for severe metabolic acidosis (ketoacidosis). Kussmaul breathing is deep, labored, and rapid. Option B causes respiratory depression (slow, shallow breathing).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q51.Question: The opening between the vocal cords is called the:
A. Epiglottis
B. Glottis
C. Pharynx
D. Palate
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Glottis refers to the vocal apparatus of the larynx, consisting of the vocal cords (vocal folds) and the opening (rima glottidis) between them. Option A is the cartilage flap protecting the airway.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q52.Question: Which of the following is an early sign of Hypoxia in an adult patient?
A. Cyanosis
B. Restlessness and confusion
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypotension
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the brain is most sensitive to low oxygen; early signs are neurological (restlessness, anxiety, confusion, irritability). Cyanosis (Option A) is a late sign. Tachycardia (not Bradycardia) is an early compensatory response.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q53.Question: The maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation is called:
A. Tidal Volume
B. Vital Capacity
C. Total Lung Capacity
D. Functional Residual Capacity
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Vital Capacity (VC) = IRV + TV + ERV. It represents the total usable/exchangeable air volume. Total Lung Capacity (Option C) includes the Residual Volume which cannot be exhaled.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q54.Question: "Subcutaneous Emphysema" (Crepitus) palpated around a chest tube insertion site indicates:
A. Infection
B. Air leaking into the tissue
C. Fluid leaking into the tissue
D. Tube dislodgement
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because air escaping from the pleural space or around the tube into the subcutaneous tissue creates a crackling sensation (crepitus, like Rice Krispies or bubble wrap) under the skin upon palpation.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q55.Question: Which organism is associated with "Currant Jelly Sputum"?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Mycoplasma
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Klebsiella pneumoniae causes tissue necrosis and hemorrhage, producing a thick, bloody, gelatinous sputum resembling currant jelly. This is commonly seen in alcoholics and debilitated patients.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q56.Question: The correct position for performing a Thoracentesis is:
A. Supine with pillow under back
B. Sitting upright leaning over a bedside table
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because sitting upright and leaning forward over a bedside table spreads the ribs and pushes the diaphragm down, giving easy and safe access to the pleural space from the posterior approach.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q57.Question: Which of the following is a normal PaO2 level in arterial blood?
A. 60-80 mmHg
B. 80-100 mmHg
C. 40-60 mmHg
D. > 100 mmHg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the normal partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) in arterial blood is 80-100 mmHg on room air. <80 mmHg indicates mild hypoxemia, <60 mmHg is severe and typically requires oxygen therapy.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q58.Question: A patient with active TB is placed on isolation precautions. Which type of mask should the nurse wear?
A. Surgical mask
B. N95 Respirator
C. Cloth mask
D. Face shield only
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; an N95 (or higher) respirator filters out particles 1-5 microns in size. The patient wears a surgical mask during transport. A face shield alone is insufficient.
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Q59.Question: The "Carina" is the anatomical point where:
A. Trachea begins
B. Trachea bifurcates into bronchi
C. Larynx meets trachea
D. Pharynx meets esophagus
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Carina is the ridge of cartilage at the base of the trachea (level of T4-T5/Sternal angle) separating the openings of the right and left main bronchi. It is highly sensitive and triggers the cough reflex when stimulated.
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Q60.Question: Chronic Bronchitis is clinically defined as a productive cough for at least:
A. 1 month in a year
B. 3 months in 2 consecutive years
C. 6 months in 1 year
D. 2 weeks
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the classic diagnostic criterion for Chronic Bronchitis is a productive cough (with sputum) for at least 3 months per year in each of 2 consecutive years, when other causes of chronic cough are excluded.
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Q61.Question: A patient is diagnosed with ARDS (Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome). The classic chest X-ray finding associated with ARDS is:
A. Hyperinflation
B. Deviated Trachea
C. Bilateral "White-out" or Ground-glass infiltrates
D. Large Pleural Effusion
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because ARDS causes diffuse alveolar damage, increased permeability, and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, leading to widespread bilateral opacities (white-out appearance). Hyperinflation (Option A) is characteristic of COPD/Emphysema.
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Q62.Question: Which of the following is an expected finding in a patient with Carbon Monoxide (CO) poisoning?
A. Cyanosis
B. Cherry-red skin color
C. Pale skin
D. Jaundice
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Carboxyhemoglobin (CO-Hb) is bright red, giving the skin and mucous membranes a characteristic "cherry-red" appearance, unlike the cyanosis (blue) seen in typical hypoxia. Note: This classic sign may not always be present.
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Q63.Question: The nurse is instructing a patient on how to use an Incentive Spirometer. The patient should be taught to:
A. Exhale forcefully into the device
B. Inhale deeply and slowly through the device
C. Blow quickly into the mouthpiece
D. Breathe normally
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Incentive Spirometry is designed to promote sustained maximal inspiration and lung expansion. The patient must inhale slowly and deeply to lift the balls/piston and hold inspiration. Blowing/exhaling into it is incorrect usage.
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Q64.Question: In a patient with a tension pneumothorax, the trachea deviates:
A. Towards the affected side
B. Away from the affected side
C. Remains midline
D. Posteriorly
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the high pressure of trapped air in the affected pleural space pushes the mediastinum (including the trachea) away towards the unaffected (healthy) side, compressing the contralateral lung and great vessels.
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Q65.Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for the cough reflex?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN V (Trigeminal)
D. CN VII (Facial)
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Vagus nerve (CN X) provides sensory innervation to the larynx, trachea, and bronchi. Irritation of these areas triggers the afferent limb of the cough reflex via the Vagus nerve.
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Q66.Question: A patient with COPD is prescribed oxygen therapy. The target SpO2 range for this patient is generally:
A. 88% - 92%
B. 94% - 98%
C. 98% - 100%
D. 100%
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because many COPD patients with chronic CO2 retention rely on a hypoxic drive to breathe. Keeping SpO2 between 88-92% prevents suppressing this drive while ensuring adequate tissue oxygenation.
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Q67.Question: "Stridor" is a sign of:
A. Lower airway obstruction
B. Upper airway obstruction
C. Fluid in alveoli
D. Pleural friction
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh, crowing sound heard primarily on inspiration, indicating narrowing or obstruction in the upper airway (larynx, trachea, or extrathoracic airways). Wheezing indicates lower airway obstruction.
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Q68.Question: Which of the following drugs is a Mast Cell Stabilizer used for the prophylaxis of asthma?
A. Cromolyn Sodium
B. Albuterol
C. Prednisone
D. Ipratropium
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Cromolyn Sodium (Intal) prevents the degranulation and release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells, preventing bronchoconstriction. It is used for prevention/prophylaxis, not acute relief. Option B is a bronchodilator. Option C is a corticosteroid. Option D is an anticholinergic.
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Q69.Question: The normal ratio of Anteroposterior (AP) diameter to Transverse diameter of the chest is:
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 1:1.5
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because in a healthy adult, the chest is wider (transverse) than it is deep (AP), giving an elliptical shape with a 1:2 ratio. A 1:1 ratio (round chest) indicates a Barrel Chest seen in COPD/Emphysema.
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Q70.Question: Which of the following conditions is an indication for a Tracheostomy?
A. Acute Asthma attack
B. Upper airway obstruction lasting > 2-3 weeks
C. Pneumothorax
D. Pleural Effusion
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because a Tracheostomy is performed for long-term airway management (prolonged mechanical ventilation >7-14 days) or to bypass upper airway obstruction. Acute conditions typically use endotracheal intubation first.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q71.Question: The nurse observes "tidaling" (fluctuation of water level) in the water seal chamber of a chest tube system. This finding indicates:
A. A leak in the system
B. The lung has fully re-expanded
C. The tube is patent and system is intact
D. The suction is too high
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because tidaling (water level rising with inspiration and falling with expiration in spontaneously breathing patients) confirms that the tube is open and communicating with the pleural space. Cessation of tidaling may indicate lung re-expansion or tube obstruction.
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Q72.Question: A "Silent Chest" in an asthmatic patient (absence of wheezing during an attack) is an ominous sign indicating:
A. Improvement
B. Severe obstruction and impending respiratory failure
C. Mild bronchospasm
D. Hyperventilation
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because if airflow is so severely restricted that no air movement occurs, no sound can be produced ("Silent Chest"). This implies critical airway closure, exhaustion, and imminent respiratory arrest. Wheezing indicates some air is still moving.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q73.Question: Which parameter is decreased in restrictive lung diseases (like Pulmonary Fibrosis)?
A. FEV1/FVC Ratio
B. Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
C. Airway Resistance
D. Residual Volume
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because restrictive diseases prevent full lung expansion due to stiff lung tissue or chest wall problems, reducing Total Lung Capacity, Vital Capacity, and all lung volumes proportionally. The FEV1/FVC ratio remains normal or increased. Obstructive diseases reduce flow rates and FEV1/FVC ratio.
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Q74.Question: The correct angle for inserting a needle for a Mantoux Test (Intradermal) is:
A. 5 to 15 degrees
B. 30 to 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 60 degrees
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because intradermal injections must be placed just under the epidermis into the dermis to form a visible wheal (bleb). The needle is inserted bevel up at 5-15 degrees. 45 degrees is for subcutaneous injections. 90 degrees is for intramuscular injections.
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Q75.Question: Which of the following is a classic symptom of Laryngeal Cancer?
A. Hemoptysis
B. Hoarseness of voice > 2 weeks
C. Chest pain
D. Dyspnea
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because persistent hoarseness (dysphonia) lasting more than 2-3 weeks is the earliest and most common warning sign of laryngeal cancer, especially involving the glottis (vocal cords). Any unexplained hoarseness requires evaluation.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q76.Question: A patient with a rib fracture should be encouraged to cough and deep breathe primarily to prevent:
A. Pain
B. Pneumonia/Atelectasis
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because pain from rib fractures causes shallow breathing (splinting), leading to hypoventilation, alveolar collapse (atelectasis), and secretion retention, which predisposes to Pneumonia. Adequate pain management and pulmonary hygiene are essential.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q77.Question: The normal respiratory rate for a newborn is:
A. 12-20 breaths/min
B. 20-30 breaths/min
C. 30-60 breaths/min
D. 60-80 breaths/min
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because newborns have higher metabolic rates and smaller lung capacity, requiring faster breathing rates of 30-60 breaths per minute. Option A (12-20) is the normal adult range. Option B is typical for toddlers/young children.
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Q78.Question: "Orthopnea" refers to:
A. Difficulty breathing while lying flat
B. Difficulty breathing while standing
C. Cessation of breathing
D. Rapid breathing
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Orthopnea is dyspnea (difficulty breathing) that occurs when recumbent (lying flat) and is relieved by sitting or standing upright. It is commonly seen in congestive heart failure (CHF) and severe COPD due to fluid redistribution. Option C is apnea. Option D is tachypnea.
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Q79.Question: Which of the following is the most common site for aspiration pneumonia due to anatomy?
A. Right Middle Lobe
B. Left Lower Lobe
C. Right Lower Lobe
D. Left Upper Lobe
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the Right Main Bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it the path of least resistance for aspirated material to enter, typically affecting the Right Lower Lobe (especially the posterior segment in supine patients).
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Q80.Question: The volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration is:
A. Residual Volume
B. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
C. Expiratory Reserve Volume
D. Vital Capacity
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because FRC = ERV + RV. It is the amount of air left in the lungs at the end of a normal, quiet exhalation (resting expiratory level). Residual Volume (Option A) is the air remaining after maximal forced exhalation.
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Q81.Question: Which of the following blood gas abnormalities is most common in the early stages of an acute asthma attack?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because early in an asthma attack, the patient hyperventilates due to hypoxia and anxiety, blowing off excessive CO2 and causing Respiratory Alkalosis (low PaCO2, high pH). As the attack worsens and respiratory muscles fatigue, CO2 retention occurs leading to Respiratory Acidosis (a late, ominous sign).
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Q82.Question: The nurse performs postural drainage on a patient with Cystic Fibrosis. The best time to perform this procedure is:
A. Immediately after meals
B. Before meals or 2 hours after meals
C. Before bedtime only
D. Whenever the patient has a cough
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because performing postural drainage (chest physiotherapy/CPT) on a full stomach can cause nausea, vomiting, and aspiration. It is best performed before meals or at least 1-2 hours after eating.
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Q83.Question: "Histoplasmosis" is a fungal infection of the lungs primarily transmitted through:
A. Contaminated water
B. Bird or Bat droppings
C. Mosquito bites
D. Direct contact
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum grows in soil enriched with bird or bat guano (droppings), particularly in caves and old buildings. Inhalation of airborne spores causes the infection.
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Q84.Question: The space between the two lungs in the thoracic cavity, containing the heart and great vessels, is called the:
A. Pleural cavity
B. Mediastinum
C. Peritoneum
D. Diaphragm
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the Mediastinum is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity situated between the two pleural sacs containing the lungs. It houses the heart, great vessels, trachea, esophagus, and other structures. Option A surrounds each lung. Option C is the abdominal membrane.
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Q85.Question: Which enzyme is deficient in Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency, leading to early-onset Emphysema?
A. Elastase
B. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin
C. Trypsin
D. Lipase
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct. Alpha-1 Antitrypsin (AAT) is a protease inhibitor protein that normally protects the lungs from the destructive enzyme Neutrophil Elastase. In AAT deficiency, uninhibited elastase destroys alveolar walls (elastin), causing emphysema even in non-smokers at a young age.
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Q86.Question: A patient with a tracheostomy requires suctioning. The nurse should set the suction pressure for an adult to:
A. 40-60 mmHg
B. 80-120 mmHg
C. 150-200 mmHg
D. > 200 mmHg
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because the standard safe suction pressure range for adults is 80-120 mmHg (some sources say 100-150 mmHg). Higher pressures cause tracheal mucosal trauma, bleeding, and hypoxia. Pediatric range is typically 60-100 mmHg.
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Q87.Question: "Flail Chest" is characterized clinically by:
A. Tracheal deviation
B. Paradoxical chest movement
C. Unilateral chest expansion
D. Barrel chest
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because in Flail Chest (fracture of 3 or more adjacent ribs in 2 or more places), the floating unstable segment moves paradoxically—inward during inhalation and outward during exhalation—opposite to the normal chest wall movement, impairing ventilation.
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Q88.Question: The primary drive for breathing in a healthy individual is:
A. High Oxygen levels
B. Low Oxygen levels
C. High Carbon Dioxide levels
D. Low Carbon Dioxide levels
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because central chemoreceptors in the medulla are most sensitive to increases in PaCO2 (hypercapnia) and the resulting decrease in pH (acidosis), which triggers the drive to breathe. The hypoxic drive (low O2) is a secondary, backup mechanism.
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Q89.Question: Which drug is the specific antidote for Opioid-induced respiratory depression?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Acetylcysteine
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Naloxone (Narcan) is a pure opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension caused by opioids like Morphine, Heroin, and Fentanyl. Flumazenil (Option A) is the antidote for Benzodiazepines. Acetylcysteine (Option D) is for Acetaminophen overdose.
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Q90.Question: A "Mantoux Test" is administered via which route?
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular
C. Intradermal
D. Intravenous
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because the PPD (Purified Protein Derivative) tuberculin is injected into the dermis (Intradermal route) on the inner forearm to elicit a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction if the person has been exposed to TB.
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Q91.Question: The normal pH of pleural fluid is approximately:
A. 6.0
B. 7.0
C. 7.6
D. 8.0
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because normal pleural fluid pH is approximately 7.60-7.64, slightly more alkaline than blood. A pleural fluid pH < 7.20-7.30 in an effusion suggests complicated parapneumonic effusion, empyema, or malignancy, often requiring chest tube drainage.
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q92.Question: "Biot's Respiration" is characterized by:
A. Deep rapid breathing
B. Irregular breathing with periods of apnea
C. Gradual increase and decrease in depth
D. Prolonged inspiratory phase
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Biot's (Ataxic) respiration involves irregular, unpredictable groups of breaths (varying depth and rate) followed by periods of apnea. It is typically seen in severe neurological damage affecting the medulla or pons, or in meningitis. Option C describes Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
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Q93.Question: The definitive treatment for a Tension Pneumothorax before chest tube insertion is:
A. Needle Decompression
B. Intubation
C. Oxygen therapy
D. Bronchodilators
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Tension Pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate decompression. Needle thoracostomy (decompression) is performed emergently in the 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line to release trapped air and relieve pressure before definitive chest tube placement.
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Q94.Question: Which part of the pharynx is a common passageway for both food and air?
A. Nasopharynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Laryngopharynx
D. Both B and C
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: D
Rationale: Answer D is correct because both the Oropharynx (behind the mouth) and Laryngopharynx/Hypopharynx (behind the larynx) serve as common pathways for both the respiratory and digestive tracts. The Nasopharynx (behind the nose) is an air-only passage.
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Q95.Question: Which of the following lung sounds is described as "low-pitched, snoring sounds" caused by secretions in large airways?
A. Crackles
B. Rhonchi
C. Wheezes
D. Stridor
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Rhonchi are continuous, low-pitched, rumbling or rattling sounds resembling snoring, caused by air passing through airways narrowed by secretions, mucus, or tumors. They often clear or change with coughing. Crackles (Option A) are discontinuous popping/bubbling sounds.
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Q96.Question: A patient is diagnosed with "Cor Pulmonale". This condition refers to:
A. Left-sided heart failure due to hypertension
B. Right-sided heart failure due to lung disease
C. Coronary artery disease
D. Pulmonary embolism
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Cor Pulmonale is the enlargement and/or failure of the Right Ventricle caused primarily by disorders of the lungs, pulmonary vessels, or chest wall that lead to pulmonary hypertension. Common causes include COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and chronic PE.
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Q97.Question: The volume of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal tidal inspiration is:
A. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
B. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
C. Residual Volume
D. Vital Capacity
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: A
Rationale: Answer A is correct because Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) is the additional/extra volume of air that can be forcibly inhaled beyond the normal tidal inspiration (approximately 3000 mL). ERV (Option B) is the extra air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal tidal expiration.
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Q98.Question: "Egophony" is a physical assessment finding where the patient says "E" but the nurse auscultates "A". This indicates:
A. Normal lung tissue
B. Pneumothorax
C. Consolidation (Pneumonia)
D. Asthma
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: C
Rationale: Answer C is correct because in consolidated (solid) lung tissue filled with fluid or exudate (as in pneumonia), sound transmission is enhanced and distorted, causing the spoken "E" sound to be heard as a nasal, bleating "A" sound (E-to-A change) through the stethoscope.
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Q99.Question: The presence of air in the mediastinum is termed:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumomediastinum
C. Hemothorax
D. Pyothorax
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Pneumomediastinum is the specific condition where air is trapped in the mediastinal space (central chest compartment). It can cause Hamman's Sign (a crunching or clicking sound synchronous with the heartbeat on auscultation).
Source: www.logyanlo.in
Q100.Question: Which vitamin supplement is routinely given along with Isoniazid (INH) therapy for TB?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
View Answer & Rationale
Answer: B
Rationale: Answer B is correct because Isoniazid interferes with Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) metabolism by increasing its excretion, which can lead to peripheral neuropathy. Prophylactic supplementation with Pyridoxine (10-50 mg/day) prevents this side effect, especially in high-risk patients (diabetics, alcoholics, malnourished, pregnant women).
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Frequently Asked Questions (Respiratory)
Q1: What is the normal range for Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values?
Ans: pH: 7.35 – 7.45
PaCO2: 35 – 45 mmHg
HCO3: 22 – 26 mEq/L
PaO2: 80 – 100 mmHg.
PaCO2: 35 – 45 mmHg
HCO3: 22 – 26 mEq/L
PaO2: 80 – 100 mmHg.
Q2: What is the difference between "Pink Puffer" and "Blue Bloater"?
Ans: Pink Puffer refers to patients with Emphysema (hyperventilation, weight loss). Blue Bloater refers to patients with Chronic Bronchitis (cyanosis, edema, mucus production).
Q3: What is the priority nursing position for a patient with Dyspnea (difficulty breathing)?
Ans: The priority position is **High Fowler's Position** (sitting upright at 90 degrees). This allows for maximum chest expansion and improves oxygenation.
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